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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Physician Activities | - Management
|
| Dimensions of Care | - Chronic Care
|
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問題 #346
A 15-year-old boy is brought to the office by his father because he is having headaches. When alone, the boy appears withdrawn and admits to suicidal ideation. He shares that he is gay but does not want to tell his parents. He says that he faked the headaches so that one of his parents would make an appointment for him.
Which one of the following is the best next step?
答案：A
解題說明：
The presence of suicidal ideation in a minor mandates urgent assessment to ensure safety and access mental health care. Disclosure of sexual orientation should be handled delicately and is not urgent compared to suicidal risk.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Child and Adolescent Psychiatry" Section:
"Any adolescent disclosing suicidal ideation should be referred for urgent mental health evaluation.
Concurrent issues such as sexual orientation may contribute to distress and should be addressed with appropriate support over time." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 79-2: Suicide Risk Assessment):
"Candidates must immediately refer for psychiatric assessment when a minor reports suicidal ideation, regardless of other social or developmental concerns." Antidepressants (A) may be appropriate but must follow specialist evaluation. Encouraging disclosure (B) or peer groups (C) is premature without ensuring safety.
問題 #347
A 14-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department with a 20-minute history of difficulty breathing that started during a school assembly. She has had similar symptoms 3 times in the last 2 weeks. These episodes develop rapidly and resolve gradually over several minutes. She reports tingling in her fingers and toes. On examination, her vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure
120/80 mm Hg
Heart rate
100/min
Respiratory rate
22/min
Oxygen saturation on room air
95%
Temperature
36.9 °C, orally
Apart from mildly dilated pupils, her examination is otherwise normal. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
答案：E
解題說明：
This teenager presents with acute-onset dyspnea, paresthesias, and normal physical findings, consistent with a panic attack. Panic attacks often mimic cardiopulmonary pathology but are marked by symptoms like hyperventilation, tingling in the extremities, palpitations, and subjective air hunger with normal vitals and oxygenation.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry:
"Panic attacks are characterized by sudden onset of intense fear or discomfort, accompanied by somatic symptoms such as dyspnea, paresthesias, tachycardia, and fear of losing control." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-3: Anxiety Disorders):
"Candidates must recognize panic attacks based on clinical features and differentiate them from cardiopulmonary conditions." Normal O2 saturation and physical exam rule out asthma or pericarditis. Cocaine use would present with more systemic toxicity. PSVT would cause consistent tachycardia.
問題 #348
An 18-month-old girl is brought in with a 3-day history of frequently passing loose stools. The stools are not bloody, but when she passes the stools, she is in obvious pain. She started vomiting earlier today, but she is still wetting diapers. On examination, she is mildly dehydrated but active and alert. Physical examination findings are otherwise normal. Which one of the following is the best management of this patient's case?
答案：D
解題說明：
This child has acute viral gastroenteritis with mild dehydration. She remains alert, active, and continues to produce urine, indicating mild volume depletion. According to MCCQE objectives and pediatric guidelines, the first-line management of mild to moderate dehydration due to gastroenteritis is oral rehydration therapy (ORT) using a commercially prepared oral rehydration solution (ORS). ORS contains the appropriate balance of glucose and electrolytes to promote sodium and water absorption via the sodium-glucose cotransporter in the intestine. Antidiarrheal agents such as loperamide are contraindicated in young children due to risk of adverse effects and limited benefit. Withholding food until diarrhea resolves is unnecessary; early refeeding with an age-appropriate diet is recommended once rehydration begins. Apple juice and chicken broth do not provide the correct electrolyte composition and may worsen diarrhea due to high osmolarity. Routine lactose restriction is not indicated unless persistent symptoms suggest secondary lactose intolerance. Early ORT reduces the need for intravenous fluids and hospital admission.
問題 #349
A 35-year-old maintenance worker presents to your office because he thinks he has been exposed to asbestos and is afraid of developing asbestosis. He has no respiratory symptoms and is a non-smoker. Which one of the following is the best next step?
答案：E
解題說明：
In any suspected occupational exposure, the first step is a detailed occupational history to assess the nature, intensity, and duration of the exposure. This determines whether surveillance or further testing is appropriate.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Respiratory Medicine, "Occupational Lung Diseases" Section:
"When a patient presents with concerns about exposure to occupational hazards such as asbestos, detailed history is essential. Ask about job tasks, duration of exposure, use of personal protective equipment, and prior workplace assessments." MCCQE1 Objectives (Population Health > 97-2: Environmental and Occupational Health):
"Candidates must be able to obtain a detailed environmental and occupational history and determine the risk of exposure before ordering investigations." Ordering a chest radiograph (B) or PFTs (E) without confirming meaningful exposure is premature. Referral to a specialist (D) and reassurance (A) come only after the exposure risk is assessed.
問題 #350
A 1-month-old breastfed baby is brought to your office by his parents for his well-baby check-up. He was born at 32 weeks' gestation. Growth parameters at birth revealed head circumference, weight and length at the
50th percentile. Today, his weight is at the 10th percentile. Which one of the following is the most appropriate plan of action?
答案：B
解題說明：
This infant was born at 32 weeks' gestation and therefore growth must be interpreted using corrected (adjusted) age , not chronological age. At 1 month chronological age, his corrected age is approximately term (40 weeks). MCCQE pediatric objectives emphasize that preterm infants commonly shift percentiles after birth due to expected postnatal fluid changes and adaptation. A drop from the 50th to the 10th percentile in the first month-particularly in a clinically well, breastfed infant-can be normal when plotted appropriately on preterm growth charts and corrected for gestational age. There is no information suggesting feeding difficulty, malabsorption, or systemic illness. A sweat chloride test (for cystic fibrosis) or celiac serology is not indicated in a thriving 1-month-old infant. Routine formula supplementation is unnecessary without evidence of poor intake or failure to thrive. The appropriate management is reassurance, continued monitoring of growth using corrected age, and support for breastfeeding, with follow-up to ensure appropriate weight gain trajectory.
問題 #351
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