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NEW QUESTION # 528
A security analyst wants to use lessons learned from a poor incident response to reduce dwell lime in the future The analyst is using the following data points
Which of the following would the analyst most likely recommend?
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the context of improving incident response and reducing dwell time, the security analyst needs to focus on proactive measures that can quickly detect and alert on potential security breaches. Here's a detailed analysis of the options provided:
A . Adjusting the SIEM to alert on attempts to visit phishing sites: While this is a useful measure to prevent phishing attacks, it primarily addresses external threats and doesn't directly impact dwell time reduction, which focuses on the time a threat remains undetected within a network.
B . Allowing TRACE method traffic to enable better log correlation: The TRACE method in HTTP is used for debugging purposes, but enabling it can introduce security vulnerabilities. It's not typically recommended for enhancing security monitoring or incident response.
C . Enabling alerting on all suspicious administrator behavior: This option directly targets the potential misuse of administrator accounts, which are often high-value targets for attackers. By monitoring and alerting on suspicious activities from admin accounts, the organization can quickly identify and respond to potential breaches, thereby reducing dwell time significantly. Suspicious behavior could include unusual login times, access to sensitive data not usually accessed by the admin, or any deviation from normal behavior patterns. This proactive monitoring is crucial for quick detection and response, aligning well with best practices in incident response.
D . Utilizing allow lists on the WAF for all users using GET methods: This measure is aimed at restricting access based on allowed lists, which can be effective in preventing unauthorized access but doesn't specifically address the need for quick detection and response to internal threats.
Reference:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of monitoring and alerting on admin activities as part of a robust incident response plan.
NIST Special Publication 800-61 Revision 2,"Computer Security Incident Handling Guide": Highlights best practices for incident response, including the importance of detecting and responding to suspicious activities quickly.
"Incident Response & Computer Forensics" by Jason T. Luttgens, Matthew Pepe, and Kevin Mandia: Discusses techniques for reducing dwell time through effective monitoring and alerting mechanisms, particularly focusing on privileged account activities.
By focusing on enabling alerting for suspicious administrator behavior, the security analyst addresses a critical area that can help reduce the time a threat goes undetected, thereby improving the overall security posture of the organization.
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NEW QUESTION # 529
An organization recently hired a third party to audit the information security controls present in the environment. After reviewing the audit findings, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) approved the budget for an in-depth defense strategy for network security. Which of the following is the most likely reason the CISO approved the additional budget?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most likely driver for approving additional network security budget is that the audit revealed that the existing architecture contained security controls that could be easily bypassed. This indicates fundamental weaknesses in defense-in-depth and suggests that attackers could gain access to sensitive systems or data despite the presence of controls.
Option A (unused budgets) is not a strategic reason for approving security investment. Option B (compliance reports requested by customers) may influence investment in compliance initiatives, but it does not explain the need for an in-depth defense architecture. Option D (PCI DSS low score) is a compliance-specific issue but would not, on its own, drive a broad architectural budget approval unless PCI was the only focus.
Security audits often uncover systemic flaws-such as flat networks, insufficient segmentation, or single points of failure-that create the conditions for bypassing controls. Addressing these issues requires rearchitecting the environment, introducing layered defenses, and strengthening monitoring capabilities, all of which demand significant budget. Thus, option C aligns with the decision to invest in robust defense-in-depth strategies.
NEW QUESTION # 530
A security engineer is reviewing the following vulnerability scan report:
Which of the following should the engineer prioritize for remediation?
Answer: D
Explanation:
OpenSSH vulnerabilityispublic facingand has acritical CVSS of 9.2.
Exploitable SSH services can lead to direct server compromise.
Although Apache has a higher score, it's internal.
FromCAS-005, Domain 3: Vulnerability Management:
"Prioritize external vulnerabilities with high CVSS and exposed attack surfaces."
NEW QUESTION # 531
A financial technology firm works collaboratively with business partners in the industry to share threat intelligence within a central platform This collaboration gives partner organizations theability to obtain and share data associated with emerging threats from a variety of adversaries Which of the following should the organization most likely leverage to facilitate this activity? (Select two).
Answer: A,F
Explanation:
D:STIX (Structured Threat Information eXpression): STIX is a standardized language for representing threat information in a structured and machine-readable format. It facilitates the sharing of threat intelligence by ensuring that data is consistent and can be easily understood by all parties involved.
E: TAXII (Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information): TAXII is a transport mechanism that enables the sharing of cyber threat information over a secure and trusted network. It works in conjunction with STIX to automate the exchange of threat intelligence among organizations.
Other options:
A: CWPP (Cloud Workload Protection Platform): This focuses on securing cloud workloads and is not directly related to threat intelligence sharing.
B: YARA: YARA is used for malware research and identifying patterns in files, but it is not a platform for sharing threat intelligence.
C: ATT&CK: This is a knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques but does not facilitate the sharing of threat intelligence data.
F: JTAG: JTAG is a standard for testing and debugging integrated circuits, not related to threat intelligence.
NEW QUESTION # 532
SIMULATION
[Security Engineering and Cryptography]
An IPSec solution is being deployed. The configuration files for both the VPN concentrator and the AAA server are shown in the diagram.
Complete the configuration files to meet the following requirements:
* The EAP method must use mutual certificate-based authentication (With issued client certificates).
* The IKEv2 Cipher suite must be configured to the MOST secure
authenticated mode of operation,
* The secret must contain at least one uppercase character, one lowercase character, one numeric character, and one special character, and it must meet a minimumlength requirement of eight characters, INSTRUCTIONS Click on the AAA server and VPN concentrator to complete the configuration.
Fill in the appropriate fields and make selections from the drop-down menus.
VPN Concentrator:
AAA Server:
Answer:
Explanation:
See the solution below in Explanation
Explanation:
VPN Concentrator:
AAA Server:
NEW QUESTION # 533
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