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ISACA CRISC Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionWeightObjectives
Risk Response and Mitigation20%- Manage and monitor risk treatment
  • 1. Risk response strategies
  • 2. Risk appetite and tolerance
  • 3. Third-party risk management
- Develop and implement controls
  • 1. Control types and classification
  • 2. Control design and optimization
Monitoring and Reporting28%- Risk and control monitoring
  • 1. Incident management
  • 2. Continuous monitoring
  • 3. Control testing and validation
- Key risk indicator (KRI) development
  • 1. KRI threshold setting
  • 2. Performance monitoring
- Communicate risk and control status
  • 1. Board reporting
  • 2. Risk dashboards and reporting
  • 3. Senior management reporting
IT Risk Assessment26%- Risk analysis methodologies
  • 1. Risk ownership and accountability
  • 2. Qualitative and quantitative analysis
- Identify control effectiveness
  • 1. Root cause analysis
  • 2. Risk and control gap analysis
- Assess capability maturity
  • 1. Control assessment framework
  • 2. Risk management maturity models
IT Risk Identification26%- Collect and process information
  • 1. Risk aggregation and reporting
  • 2. Business continuity and disaster recovery
  • 3. Risk taxonomy and terminology
- Analyze and classify information
  • 1. Risk scenarios and events
  • 2. Threat landscape and vulnerability assessment
- Communicate risk analysis
  • 1. Risk reporting and escalation
  • 2. Risk register management

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ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Sample Questions (Q1774-Q1779):

NEW QUESTION # 1774
Which of the following shortcomings of perimeter security does Zero Trust aim to resolve?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Zero Trustassumes that no system or user is inherently trustworthy-even within the internal network. It addresses theinadequacy of perimeter securityby enforcing continuous verification for every access request.
Reference:CRISC Manual - Domain 2, Slide 128-129


NEW QUESTION # 1775
A control owner identifies that the organization's shared drive contains personally identifiable information
(Pll) that can be accessed by all personnel. Which of the following is the MOST effective risk response?

Answer: B

Explanation:
Personally identifiable information (PII) is any information that can be used to identify, contact, or locate an
individual, such as name, address, phone number, email, social security number, etc1. PII is subject to various
laws and regulations that aim to protect the privacy and security of individuals'data1. Organizations that
collect, store, process, or transmit PII have a responsibility to safeguard it from unauthorized access, use,
disclosure, modification, or destruction1.
One of the best practices for protecting PII is to implement access controls, which are mechanisms that restrict
access to PII based on the principle of least privilege2. Access controls ensure that only authorized personnel
who have a legitimate need to access PII can do so, and that they can only perform the actions that are
necessary for their roles and responsibilities2. Access controls can be implemented at different levels, such as
network, system, application, or data level, and can use various methods, such as passwords, tokens,
biometrics, encryption, etc2.
If an organization's shared drive contains PII that can be accessed by all personnel, this poses a high risk of
data breach, theft, loss, or misuse, which could result in legal, financial, reputational, or operational
consequences for the organization and the individuals whose data is compromised3. Therefore, the most
effective risk response is to protect the sensitive information with access controls, such as:
Classify the PII according to its sensitivity and impact level, and assign appropriate labels and permissions to
the data files and folders2.
Restrict access to the shared drive to only those personnel who have a valid business reason to access the PII,
and grant them the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks2.
Implement strong authentication and authorization mechanisms, such as multifactor authentication, role-based
access control, or attribute-based access control, to verify the identity and privileges of the users who access
the shared drive2.
Encrypt the PII stored on the shared drive, and use secure protocols and channels to transmit the data over the
network2.
Monitor and audit the access and activities on the shared drive, and generate logs and reports to detect and
respond to any unauthorized or anomalous events2.
The other options are not as effective as access controls, because they do not directly address the root cause of
the risk, which is the lack of access restrictions on the shared drive. Implementing a data loss prevention
(DLP) solution, which is a tool that monitors and prevents the leakage of sensitive data, may help to detect
and block some unauthorized data transfers, but it does not prevent unauthorized access or viewing of the PII
on the shared drive4. Re-communicating the data protection policy, which is a document that defines the rules
and responsibilities for handling PII, may help to raise awareness and compliance among the personnel, but it
does not enforce or verify the actual implementation of the policy. Implementing a data encryption solution,
which is a technique that transforms the PII into an unreadable format, may helpto protect the confidentiality
of the data, but it does not prevent unauthorized access or modification of the data, and it may introduce
additional complexity and overhead to the data management process.
References = Guide to Protecting the Confidentiality of Personally Identifiable Information (PII), Best
Practices for Protecting PII, How to Secure Personally Identifiable Information against Loss or
Compromise, Data Loss Prevention (DLP) | Microsoft 365 security, [Protecting Personal Information: A
Guide for Business], [Encryption - Wikipedia]


NEW QUESTION # 1776
Business areas within an organization have engaged various cloud service providers directly without assistance from the IT department. What should the risk practitioner do?

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 1777
When collecting information to identify IT-related risk, a risk practitioner should FIRST focus on IT:

Answer: C

Explanation:
When collecting information to identify IT-related risk, a risk practitioner should first focus on IT risk appetite, which is the amount of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its IT objectives, before action is deemed necessary to reduce the risk1. IT risk appetite reflects the organization's IT risk attitude and its willingness to accept risk in specific scenarios, with a governance model in place for IT risk oversight. IT risk appetite helps to guide the organization's approach to IT risk and IT risk management, and to align its IT risk decisions with its business objectives and context. The other options are not the best answers, as they are either derived from or dependent on the IT risk appetite. IT security policies are the rules and guidelines that define the organization's IT security objectives, requirements, and responsibilities, and they are based on the IT risk appetite. IT process maps are the graphical representations of the IT processes, activities, and tasks that support the organization's IT objectives, and they are influenced by the IT risk appetite. IT risk tolerance level is the acceptable variation between the IT risk thresholds and the IT objectives, and it is determined by the IT risk appetite. References = IT Risk Resources | ISACA; Risk Appetite vs. Risk Tolerance: What is the Difference?; IT Risk Management - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics; IT Risk Management Framework - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics


NEW QUESTION # 1778
Jane is the project manager of the NHJ Project for his company. He has identified several positive risk events within his project and he thinks these events can save the project time and money. Positive risk events, such as these within the NHJ Project are referred to as?

Answer: D

Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation:
A positive risk event is also known as an opportunity. Opportunities within the project to save time and money must be evaluated, analyzed, and responded to.
Incorrect Answers:
A: A contingency risk is not a valid risk management term.
B: Benefits are the good outcomes of a project endeavor. Benefits usually have a cost factor associated with them.
C: Residual risk is the risk that remains after applying controls. It is not feasible to eliminate all risks from an organization. Instead, measures can be taken to reduce risk to an acceptable level. The risk that is left is residual risk.


NEW QUESTION # 1779
......

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