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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Risk and Return | - Portfolio risk and diversification - Expected return |
| Cost of Capital and Valuation | - Bond and stock valuation basics - Weighted average cost of capital (WACC) |
| Time Value of Money | - Annuities and perpetuities - Present and future value calculations |
| Capital Budgeting | - Internal rate of return (IRR) - Net present value (NPV) - Payback period analysis |
| Financial Statement Analysis | - Cash flow analysis - Balance sheet and income statement interpretation - Financial ratios |
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NEW QUESTION # 78
How does asset tangibility affect a company's capital structure?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Asset tangibility directly affects a firm's ability to obtain debt financing because lenders prefer collateral-backed loans. Firms with higher tangible assets face lower borrowing constraints and typically carry higher leverage. This relationship is well documented in capital structure research and financial management textbooks. Tangible assets reduce credit risk and expected losses in default, allowing firms to raise debt more easily and at lower cost. Option B correctly captures this core capital structure relationship.
NEW QUESTION # 79
In the statement of cash flows, how should an increase in accounts receivable be treated when calculating cash collected from customers?
Answer: D
Explanation:
When calculating cash collected from customers, an increase in accounts receivable must be subtracted from revenue. This is because revenue includes both cash sales and credit sales, but cash collected reflects only the amount actually received during the period. If accounts receivable increased, it means some portion of reported sales has not yet been collected in cash. Therefore, that increase must be deducted to convert accrual- based revenue into a cash basis amount. The general relationship is: Cash Collected from Customers = Sales Revenue # Increase in Accounts Receivable, assuming no other unusual adjustments. This treatment is important in preparing or interpreting the operating section of the statement of cash flows, especially under the direct method. Financial management relies on this distinction because firms may appear profitable on the income statement while still facing liquidity pressure if collections are slow. The other answer choices are incorrect because accounts receivable relates to sales revenue, not cost of goods sold. Therefore, A is the correct answer because subtracting the increase in receivables properly adjusts reported revenue to the actual cash collected from customers during the accounting period.
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NEW QUESTION # 80
A company is looking to invest in new machinery that will enhance overall efficiency. The projected assets needed for the project are $590,000, the projected liabilities are $431,000, and the projected equity is $49,000.
What is the discretionary financing need (DFN)?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Discretionary financing need (DFN), also called external financing needed, represents the additional funds a company must raise after accounting for the financing provided by liabilities and equity. The basic relationship is: DFN = Projected Assets # Projected Liabilities # Projected Equity. Using the numbers in this problem, DFN = $590,000 # $431,000 # $49,000 = $110,000. Therefore, answer B is correct. This means the company will need to obtain an additional $110,000 in financing, such as new debt or new equity, to support the machinery investment and the related growth. Financial managers use DFN calculations in pro forma planning to estimate whether internal sources and spontaneous liabilities are enough to support expansion. If DFN is positive, the firm must seek outside financing or change its operating assumptions, such as improving profit margins, retaining more earnings, or reducing asset intensity. If DFN is negative, the firm has excess financing capacity. Understanding DFN is essential in capital management because growth often requires more assets than can be supported by existing internal funds. Therefore, B correctly reflects the amount of external financing required.
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NEW QUESTION # 81
A stock has a dividend per share of $5 and is expected to grow at a constant rate of 3% indefinitely. The required rate of return is 9%.
What is the value of the stock?
Answer: C
Explanation:
This question applies the Gordon growth (constant growth dividend discount) model, which values a stock as the present value of an infinite stream of dividends growing at a constant rate. The model assumes that dividends grow steadily and that the required rate of return exceeds the growth rate, ensuring a finite value. The formula is:
Stock Value = D# ÷ (r # g),
where D# is the dividend expected next year, r is the required rate of return, and g is the growth rate. If the current dividend is $5, the next dividend equals $5 × (1 + 0.03) = $5.15. Substituting into the formula gives:
$5.15 ÷ (0.09 # 0.03) = $5.15 ÷ 0.06 = $85.83.
This valuation approach is commonly used for mature firms with stable dividend policies and predictable growth. Financial managers and analysts rely on this model to estimate intrinsic stock value and assess whether a stock is overvalued or undervalued relative to its market price.
NEW QUESTION # 82
What does a beta of less than 1 signify in the capital asset pricing model (CAPM)?
Answer: C
Explanation:
A beta less than 1 indicates that an investment has lower systematic risk than the overall market. Such securities tend to experience smaller fluctuations in response to market movements. Defensive stocks- such as utilities or consumer staples-often exhibit betas below one because their revenues are relatively stable across economic cycles. In CAPM, lower beta implies lower required return, reflecting reduced exposure to market-wide risk. Importantly, a beta below one does not mean the investment is risk-free; it still carries firm-specific (unsystematic) risk. Option B correctly describes the implication of a beta less than one within capital market theory.
NEW QUESTION # 83
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