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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Vulnerability Management | 30% | - Cloud and virtual environment vulnerabilities
|
| Reporting and Communication | 17% | - Security awareness and training
|
| Security Operations | 33% | - Threat intelligence
|
| Incident Response Management | 20% | - Digital forensics basics
|
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NEW QUESTION # 176
A managed service provider manages servers in customer-assigned Internet Protocol spaces.
The provider discovers that these servers are not included in scheduled network scans, but the provider cannot scan the servers without the customers' explicit permission. Which of the following scanning methods should the provider use to scan these individual servers?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Agent-based scans allow security assessments to be performed directly on individual servers without requiring network-level scanning permissions, making them suitable when servers reside in customer-controlled IP spaces and explicit consent is needed per system.
NEW QUESTION # 177
An analyst is reviewing a dashboard from the company's SIEM and finds that an IP address known to be malicious can be tracked to numerous high-priority events in the last two hours. The dashboard indicates that these events relate to TTPs. Which of the following is the analyst most likely using?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The MITRE ATT&CK framework is widely used for tracking and categorizing Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTPs) of adversaries. TTPs help analysts understand the behaviors and methods attackers employ during incidents, making this framework particularly useful in SIEM dashboards for correlating and identifying threats. While the other options (OSSTMM, Diamond Model, OWASP) offer various security methodologies, MITRE ATT&CK is specifically focused on documenting adversary behaviors, making it the best fit here.
NEW QUESTION # 178
After identifying a threat, a company has decided to implement a patch management program to remediate vulnerabilities. Which of the following risk management principles is the company exercising?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Mitigate is the best term to describe the risk management principle that the company is exercising, as it means to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk. By implementing a patch management program to remediate vulnerabilities, the company is mitigating the threat of cyberattacks that could exploit those vulnerabilities and compromise the security or functionality of the systems. The other terms are not as accurate as mitigate, as they describe different risk management principles. Transfer means to shift the responsibility or burden of a risk to another party, such as an insurer or a contractor. Accept means to acknowledge the existence of a risk and decide not to take any action to reduce it, usually because the risk is low or the cost of mitigation is too high. Avoid means to eliminate the possibility of a risk by changing the plans or activities that could cause it, such as cancelling a project or discontinuing a service.
NEW QUESTION # 179
An incident response team found indicators of compromise on a critical server. The team needs to isolate the server and collect technical evidence for further investigation. Which of the following pieces of data should be collected first in order to preserve sensitive information before isolating the server?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Routing table . The routing table is volatile technical evidence because it is stored in memory and can change or be lost when the system is isolated, powered down, rebooted, or otherwise modified. In incident response and forensics, volatile evidence must be collected before less volatile evidence.
Exact supporting extract: the Sybex CySA+ Practice Tests explanation states that routing tables are typically stored in RAM, making them highly volatile. It also explains the order of volatility from least to most volatile as backups/printouts, disk drives, virtual memory, and finally CPU cache, registers, and RAM.
The Sybex CySA+ Study Guide states that forensic acquisition must account for the order of volatility , meaning how easily data can be lost. It explains that memory and cache data are highly volatile and may be lost if the system is powered off, while disk data is much less volatile.
The Secbay CySA+ guide also states that the order of volatility must be followed because failing to do so will likely result in evidence being lost. It specifically notes that volatile data is kept in areas such as CPU cache and memory, while archived media persists for much longer.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A). Hard disk is persistent storage and can be imaged later using forensic procedures.
B). Primary boot partition is also persistent disk evidence.
C). Malicious files are important, but files on disk are less volatile than memory-resident network state.
E). Static IP address is configuration information and is not as volatile as the active routing table.
D is correct because the routing table should be captured before isolation changes the server's active network state.
NEW QUESTION # 180
A Chief Information Security Officer wants to map all the attack vectors that the company faces each day. Which of the following recommendations should the company align their security controls around?
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 181
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