Latest CS0-004 Exam Topics - CS0-004 Actual Test Pdf

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CompTIA CS0-004 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Weight	Objectives
Incident Response and Management	24%	- Incident Response Techniques 1. Root cause analysis 2. Training and exercises 3. Remediation and verification 4. Log collection, correlation, and enrichment 5. Alerts, notifications, and triage 6. Evidence gathering and preservation 7. Corrective action development 8. Restoration 9. Incident response and communication plans 10. Timeline, severity, impact, and prioritization 11. Playbooks and roles 12. Isolation and escalation - Incident Response Process 1. Eradication 2. Analysis 3. Containment 4. Post-incident activities 5. Preparation 6. Detection 7. Recovery - Attack Methodology Frameworks 1. MITRE ATT&CK 2. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis 3. Cyber Kill Chain
Security Operations	34%	- Efficiency and Process Improvement in Security Operations 1. Standardize processes 2. Automation and orchestration 3. Technology and tool integration 4. Streamline operations 5. Data enrichment - System and Network Architecture in Security Operations 1. Operating system concepts 2. Device management concepts 3. Identity and access management 4. Data protection concepts 5. Critical infrastructure concepts 6. Encryption techniques 7. Network architecture concepts 8. Infrastructure and system architecture concepts 9. Logging concepts - Artificial Intelligence in Security Operations 1. AI use cases 2. AI governance 3. AI risks - Tools for Determining Malicious Activity 1. User and entity behavior analysis 2. Packet analysis 3. Domain and IP reputation 4. Sandboxing 5. Endpoint security 6. Log analysis and SIEM 7. Pattern recognition and suspicious command analysis 8. Threat intelligence platforms 9. Email analysis 10. Programming and scripting languages 11. File formats 12. File analysis 13. Decoding and parsing - Threat Intelligence and Threat Hunting 1. Collection methods and sources 2. Threat modeling 3. Indicators of compromise 4. Tactics, techniques, and procedures 5. Confidence-level impacts 6. Threat mapping 7. Cyber deception 8. Threat actors - Indicators of Potential Malicious Activity 1. Network-related indicators 2. Application-related indicators 3. Social engineering attacks 4. Email-related attacks 5. Host-related indicators 6. Cloud-related indicators 7. Identity-based indicators 8. Unauthorized configuration
Vulnerability Management	26%	- Control Types, Risks, and Vulnerability Management 1. Risk concepts 2. Policies, governance, and service-level objectives 3. Application security 4. Control types 5. Control functions 6. Risk management strategies 7. Third-party risk - Vulnerability Assessment Tools 1. Multipurpose tools 2. Network scanning and mapping 3. Vulnerability scanners 4. Cloud infrastructure assessment tools 5. Web application scanners 6. Breach attack simulation tools - Vulnerability Prioritization and Mitigation 1. Mitigation strategies 2. Vulnerability prioritization criteria 3. Scoring methods 4. Validation of remediation 5. Context awareness - Vulnerability Scanning Methods 1. Scan types 2. Security baseline scanning 3. Planning considerations 4. Asset inventory 5. Discovery
Reporting and Communication	16%	- Security Operations and Incident Response Reporting and Communication 1. Metrics and key performance indicators 2. Post-incident reporting 3. Communication plan 4. Incident declaration and escalation 5. Internal threat intelligence report 6. Executive summary 7. Shift and incident handover 8. Operational security awareness - Vulnerability Management Reporting and Communication 1. Action plans 2. Inhibitors to remediation 3. Metrics and key performance indicators 4. Compliance findings 5. Vulnerability scan reports 6. Stakeholder identification and communication 7. Risk scorecards

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CS0-004 Actual Test Pdf - CS0-004 Dumps Vce

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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q122-Q127):

NEW QUESTION # 122
A security analyst reviews the following report:

Which of the following explain the reason the analyst gives 1.15 the highest priority for remediation? (Choose two.)

A. It requires user interaction to exploit the vulnerability.
B. It requires the lowest level of permissions to execute.
C. Highly privileged user accounts can be used to gain access to the system.
D. The system must be accessed with an interactive session for exploitation.
E. The vulnerable software can be accessed from remote networks.
F. The attacker can use elevated privileges to execute arbitrary code.

Answer: B,E

Explanation:
The CVSS vector for vulnerability 1.15 includes PR:N, which means no privileges are required to exploit the vulnerability. This makes exploitation easier and increases risk.
The vector also includes AV:N, which indicates the vulnerability is exploitable over a network.
Remote accessibility significantly increases exposure because attackers do not need local access to the target system.

NEW QUESTION # 123
An analyst is researching potential indicators of compromise (IoCs) on a server and receives the following output:

Which of following best describes the potential IoC?

A. Enumeration
B. Activity on unexpected ports
C. Rogue device
D. Unauthorized software

Answer: B

Explanation:
The connection list shows established outbound connections to unusual or nonstandard ports such as 27656, 3256, 666, and 33000. Communication over unexpected or uncommon ports can indicate suspicious activity, such as malware or command-and-control traffic attempting to bypass normal monitoring and security controls. This pattern is commonly treated as an indicator of compromise involving activity on unexpected ports.

NEW QUESTION # 124
A security analyst responds to an incident and finds the attacker embedded in the critical infrastructure. There is no evidence of lateral movement in the past 30 days. Which of the following is the most likely type of threat actor in the system?

A. Hacktivist
B. Organized crime
C. Nation-state
D. Script kiddie

Answer: C

Explanation:
A nation-state threat actor is the most likely candidate because these actors are known for establishing long-term, persistent access to critical infrastructure targets. Their objectives often involve espionage, strategic positioning, or preparation for future operations, allowing them to remain embedded within systems for extended periods while minimizing detectable activity such as lateral movement.

NEW QUESTION # 125
A security analyst is investigating a group of SIEM alerts about the installation of a potentially unwanted program on multiple devices. Due to the number of alerts, the analyst is concerned that the program may not be safe. Which of the following actions should the analyst take to determine whether an incident is occurring?

A. Reimage the devices immediately and instruct the users to avoid installing the program in the future.
B. Run manual virus scans on all devices and quarantine any findings.
C. Place the devices on an isolated VLAN with no external access.
D. Use packet captures to analyze traffic for communications to command-and-control destinations.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Before declaring an incident or taking containment actions, the analyst should gather additional evidence to determine whether the potentially unwanted program is actually malicious. Analyzing network traffic for communications with known command-and-control destinations helps identify malicious behavior and confirms whether the alerts represent a genuine security incident.

NEW QUESTION # 126
A company's Zero Trust network requires reauthentication with MFA every two hours. Which of the following is an advantage of this architecture?

A. Reduces the time an attacker can use compromised credentials
B. Prevents the recurring use of rainbow tables
C. Increases the accuracy of user and device asset inventories
D. Rotates the encryption key to prevent brute forcing

Answer: A

Explanation:
Requiring MFA reauthentication every two hours limits the duration of a user's authenticated session. If an attacker obtains valid credentials or hijacks an active session, the attacker will have only a limited window of access before reauthentication is required, reducing the potential impact of compromised credentials.

NEW QUESTION # 127
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