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The CS0-003 Exam is designed to test the candidate’s ability to identify and analyze cybersecurity threats, assess the impact of those threats, and implement effective strategies to mitigate them. CS0-003 exam covers a wide range of topics including threat management, vulnerability management, incident response, security architecture and toolsets. It is a comprehensive exam that requires a thorough understanding of cybersecurity principles and practices.

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The CySA+ certification is highly valued by employers and is a key differentiator for cybersecurity professionals. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is recognized globally and is highly respected by organizations looking to hire skilled cybersecurity professionals. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification provides a comprehensive understanding of the latest cybersecurity trends, technologies, and threats, making it an essential certification for anyone looking to advance their career in cybersecurity.

CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q345-Q350):

NEW QUESTION # 345
A systems administrator notices unfamiliar directory names on a production server. The administrator reviews the directory listings and files, and then concludes the server has been compromised. Which of the following steps should the administrator take next?

Answer: D

Explanation:
An incident response plan is a set of predefined procedures and guidelines that an organization follows when faced with a security breach or attack. An incident response plan helps to ensure that the organization can quickly and effectively contain, analyze, eradicate, and recover from the incident, as well as prevent or minimize the damage and impact to the business operations, reputation, and customers. An incident response plan also defines the roles and responsibilities of the incident response team, the communication channels and protocols, the escalation and reporting procedures, and the tools and resources available for the incident response. By following the company's incident response plan, the administrator can ensure that they are following the best practices and standards for handling a security incident, and that they are coordinating and collaborating with the relevant stakeholders and authorities. Following the company's incident response plan can also help to avoid or reduce any legal, regulatory, or contractual liabilities or penalties that may arise from the incident. The other options are not as effective or appropriate as following the company's incident response plan. Informing the internal incident response team (A) is a good step, but it should be done according to the company's incident response plan, which may specify who, when, how, and what to report. Reviewing the lessons learned for the best approach ?is a good step, but it should be done after the incident has been resolved and closed, not during the active response phase. Determining when the access started (D) is a good step, but it should be done as part of the analysis phase of the incident response plan, not before following the plan.


NEW QUESTION # 346
A security analyst has received an incident case regarding malware spreading out of control on a customer's network. The analyst is unsure how to respond. The configured EDR has automatically obtained a sample of the malware and its signature. Which of the following should the analyst perform next to determine the type of malware, based on its telemetry?

Answer: D

Explanation:
The signature of the malware is a unique identifier that can be used to compare it with known malware samples and their behaviors. Open-source threat intelligence sources provide information on various types of malware, their indicators of compromise, and their mitigation strategies. By cross-referencing the signature with these sources, the analyst can determine the type of malware and its telemetry. The other options are not relevant for this purpose: configuring the EDR to perform a full scan may not provide additional information on the malware type; transferring the malware to a sandbox environment may expose the analyst to further risks; logging in to the affected systems and running netstat may not reveal the malware activity.
Reference:
According to the CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition1, one of the objectives for the exam is to "use appropriate tools and methods to manage, prioritize and respond to attacks and vulnerabilities". The book also covers the usage and syntax of EDR, a tool used for endpoint security, in chapter 5. Specifically, it explains the meaning and function of malware signatures and how they can be used to identify malware types1, page 203. It also discusses the benefits and challenges of using open-source threat intelligence sources to enhance security analysis1, page 211. Therefore, this is a reliable source to verify the answer to the question.


NEW QUESTION # 347
A security analyst received an alert regarding multiple successful MFA log-ins for a particular user. When reviewing the authentication logs, the analyst sees the following:

Which of the following are most likely occurring, base on the MFA logs? (Choose two.)

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
Impossible geo-velocity: This is an event where a single user's account is accessed from different geographical locations within a timeframe that is impossible for normal human travel. In the log, we can see that the user "jdoe" is accessing from the United States and then within a few minutes from Russia, which is practically impossible to achieve without the use of some form of automated system or if the account credentials are being used by different individuals in different locations.
Push phishing: This could also be an indication of push phishing, where the user is tricked into approving a multi-factor authentication request that they did not initiate. This is less clear from the logs directly, but it could be inferred if the user is receiving MFA requests that they are not initiating and are being approved without their genuine desire to access the resources.


NEW QUESTION # 348
A company offers a hardware security appliance to customers that provides remote administration of a device on the customer's network. Customers are not authorized to alter the configuration. The company deployed a software process to manage unauthorized changes to the appliance log them, and forward them to a central repository for evaluation.
Which of the following processes is the company using to ensure the appliance is not altered from its original configured state?

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 349
A company recently removed administrator rights from all of its end user workstations. An analyst uses CVSSv3.1 exploitability metrics to prioritize the vulnerabilities for the workstations and produces the following information:

Which of the following vulnerabilities should be prioritized for remediation?

Answer: B

Explanation:
nessie.explosion should be prioritized for remediation, as it has the highest CVSSv3.1 exploitability score of
8.6. The exploitability score is a sub-score of the CVSSv3.1 base score, which reflects the ease and technical means by which the vulnerability can be exploited. The exploitability score is calculated based on four metrics: Attack Vector, Attack Complexity, Privileges Required, and User Interaction. The higher the exploitability score, the more likely and feasible the vulnerability is to be exploited by an attacker12. nessie.
explosion has the highest exploitability score because it has the lowest values for all four metrics: Network (AV:N), Low (AC:L), None (PR:N), and None (UI:N). This means that the vulnerability can be exploited remotely over the network, without requiring any user interaction or privileges, and with low complexity.
Therefore, nessie.explosion poses the greatest threat to the end user workstations, and should be remediated first. vote.4p, sweet.bike, and great.skills have lower exploitability scores because they have higher values for some of the metrics, such as Adjacent Network (AV:A), High (AC:H), Low (PR:L), or Required (UI:R). This means that the vulnerabilities are more difficult or less likely to be exploited, as they require physical proximity, user involvement, or some privileges34. References: CVSS v3.1 Specification Document - FIRST, NVD - CVSS v3 Calculator, CVSS v3.1 User Guide - FIRST, CVSS v3.1 Examples - FIRST


NEW QUESTION # 350
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