Free PDF Quiz 2026 CompTIA CS0-004: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam–Valid Latest Questions

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CompTIA CS0-004 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Weight	Objectives
Security Operations	34%	- Threat Intelligence and Threat Hunting 1. Threat actors 2. Collection methods and sources 3. Tactics, techniques, and procedures 4. Threat mapping 5. Indicators of compromise 6. Cyber deception 7. Confidence-level impacts 8. Threat modeling - System and Network Architecture in Security Operations 1. Data protection concepts 2. Encryption techniques 3. Infrastructure and system architecture concepts 4. Identity and access management 5. Device management concepts 6. Operating system concepts 7. Network architecture concepts 8. Critical infrastructure concepts 9. Logging concepts - Efficiency and Process Improvement in Security Operations 1. Automation and orchestration 2. Streamline operations 3. Standardize processes 4. Technology and tool integration 5. Data enrichment - Artificial Intelligence in Security Operations 1. AI risks 2. AI use cases 3. AI governance - Tools for Determining Malicious Activity 1. Pattern recognition and suspicious command analysis 2. Decoding and parsing 3. Log analysis and SIEM 4. Threat intelligence platforms 5. Programming and scripting languages 6. File analysis 7. Domain and IP reputation 8. Sandboxing 9. Email analysis 10. Endpoint security 11. File formats 12. User and entity behavior analysis 13. Packet analysis - Indicators of Potential Malicious Activity 1. Email-related attacks 2. Cloud-related indicators 3. Application-related indicators 4. Host-related indicators 5. Unauthorized configuration 6. Social engineering attacks 7. Identity-based indicators 8. Network-related indicators
Reporting and Communication	16%	- Security Operations and Incident Response Reporting and Communication 1. Operational security awareness 2. Communication plan 3. Internal threat intelligence report 4. Incident declaration and escalation 5. Executive summary 6. Post-incident reporting 7. Shift and incident handover 8. Metrics and key performance indicators - Vulnerability Management Reporting and Communication 1. Compliance findings 2. Vulnerability scan reports 3. Action plans 4. Inhibitors to remediation 5. Stakeholder identification and communication 6. Risk scorecards 7. Metrics and key performance indicators
Vulnerability Management	26%	- Vulnerability Scanning Methods 1. Discovery 2. Scan types 3. Asset inventory 4. Planning considerations 5. Security baseline scanning - Control Types, Risks, and Vulnerability Management 1. Policies, governance, and service-level objectives 2. Control functions 3. Control types 4. Application security 5. Risk concepts 6. Third-party risk 7. Risk management strategies - Vulnerability Prioritization and Mitigation 1. Vulnerability prioritization criteria 2. Context awareness 3. Validation of remediation 4. Scoring methods 5. Mitigation strategies - Vulnerability Assessment Tools 1. Breach attack simulation tools 2. Cloud infrastructure assessment tools 3. Vulnerability scanners 4. Web application scanners 5. Network scanning and mapping 6. Multipurpose tools
Incident Response and Management	24%	- Incident Response Techniques 1. Log collection, correlation, and enrichment 2. Remediation and verification 3. Corrective action development 4. Incident response and communication plans 5. Alerts, notifications, and triage 6. Playbooks and roles 7. Restoration 8. Timeline, severity, impact, and prioritization 9. Training and exercises 10. Root cause analysis 11. Evidence gathering and preservation 12. Isolation and escalation - Attack Methodology Frameworks 1. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis 2. MITRE ATT&CK 3. Cyber Kill Chain - Incident Response Process 1. Containment 2. Recovery 3. Analysis 4. Detection 5. Preparation 6. Eradication 7. Post-incident activities

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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q75-Q80):

NEW QUESTION # 75
A security architect works with a client on security operations center (SOC) capabilities. The security architect wants to ensure the log correlation and investigation activities are accurate across the infrastructure. Which of the following is the best for the client to implement?

A. Application programming interfaces (APIs)
B. Account federation
C. Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA)
D. Network Time Protocol (NTP)
E. Secure access service edge (SASE)

Answer: D

Explanation:
NTP synchronizes system clocks across the infrastructure, ensuring log timestamps align for accurate event correlation and incident timeline analysis.

NEW QUESTION # 76
A BIA document was recently updated to include new critical systems. Which of the following is the most important reason for the update?

A. To ensure the systems receive the proper priority in a DR scenario
B. To create a business case that explains the importance of the systems
C. To add the systems to forensic analysis in case of a data breach
D. To include vendor-specific IR training in the security budget

Answer: A

Explanation:
A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) identifies critical business functions and systems and establishes their recovery priorities. Updating the BIA to include new critical systems ensures those systems are assigned the appropriate recovery objectives and receive the proper priority during a disaster recovery scenario, helping the organization restore essential operations efficiently.

NEW QUESTION # 77
A vendor releases details of a new vulnerability. When an analyst reviews the scheduled scans, no vulnerabilities are identified. The vulnerability is only discovered after a configuration change.
Which of the following scan types did the analyst configure?

A. Agent-based
B. Credentialed
C. Network
D. External

Answer: A

Explanation:
Agent-based scanning monitors the local system and can detect vulnerabilities when endpoint configurations or installed software change, rather than relying solely on periodic network scans.

NEW QUESTION # 78
An incident response team investigates a possible data leak. Various IT systems collect evidence.
Which of the following processes is required to ensure that evidentiary artifacts are properly recorded?

A. Post incident reporting
B. Chain of custody
C. Packaging and labeling
D. Storage and containment

Answer: B

Explanation:
Chain of custody is the formal process used to document the collection, possession, transfer, handling, analysis, and disposition of evidentiary artifacts. Its purpose is to establish an auditable history demonstrating who controlled the evidence, when custody changed, why it was transferred, and what actions were performed on it.
NIST defines chain of custody as tracking evidence throughout its collection, safeguarding, and analysis lifecycle while documenting each individual who handled it, relevant timestamps, and the purpose of transfers. This is critical when multiple systems, analysts, forensic teams, or external parties participate in an investigation because undocumented handling could undermine confidence in the evidence's integrity or admissibility.
Packaging and labeling are important evidence-preservation procedures, but they represent only individual activities within the broader evidence-management process. Storage and containment protect artifacts from alteration or unauthorized access but do not provide the complete historical record of possession. Post- incident reporting documents investigation conclusions and response actions after the incident rather than tracking evidence throughout its lifecycle.
The decisive phrase is "properly recorded." A defensible record of every evidence transfer and handler is specifically the function of chain of custody.
Study Guide Reference: Incident Response and Management # Digital Forensics # Evidence Acquisition # Chain of Custody # Evidence Integrity # Documentation and Preservation.

NEW QUESTION # 79
Law enforcement subpoenas a company in order to obtain all records related to the activities a threat actor performed using the IP address 154.21.154.21. Which of the following should an analyst perform first?

A. Chain of custody
B. Hash verification
C. Legal hold
D. Data acquisition

Answer: C

Explanation:
A legal hold should be established first to ensure that all relevant records, logs, and evidence related to the investigation are preserved and protected from deletion or modification. Once preservation requirements are in place, evidence can be collected and handled according to forensic and legal procedures.

NEW QUESTION # 80
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