CCDS-O Fragenkatalog - CCDS-O Online Prüfung

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ACDIS CCDS-O Prüfungsplan:

ThemaEinzelheiten
Thema 1
  • Healthcare regulations, reimbursement, and documentation requirements related to the Official Guidelines for
Thema 2
  • Quality, Regulatory, and Health Initiatives: Covers population health, MSSP, ACO models, MACRA
  • MIPS, compliant query development, RADV audits, OIG compliance, problem list maintenance, and HIPAA requirements in outpatient CDI.
Thema 3
  • CDI Program Concepts: Department Metrics and Provider Education: Covers provider education development, CDI performance metrics including query rates, RAF progression, HCC capture, ACO
  • MSSP impact, and physician documentation's effect on quality reporting.

>> CCDS-O Fragenkatalog <<

CCDS-O Online Prüfung - CCDS-O Quizfragen Und Antworten

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ACDIS Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient CCDS-O Prüfungsfragen mit Lösungen (Q23-Q28):

23. Frage
Which of the following actions should be taken when the documentation states: "Hemiparesis, history of CVA, and intracranial trauma?"

Antwort: C

Begründung:
This documentation presents a key outpatient CDI problem: hemiparesis is present, but two potential causal conditions are referenced-history of CVA and intracranial trauma-without clear linkage. In ICD-10-CM, correct reporting of hemiparesis often depends on identifying whether it is a late effect (sequela) of a prior stroke, a residual from traumatic brain injury, or due to another neurologic condition. Coding hemiparesis automatically as a CVA sequela (option A) would be assumptive and potentially inaccurate, because the clinician has not documented the relationship. Likewise, simply coding hemiparesis alone (option D) may miss important etiologic specificity, and coding both histories without clarifying the cause (option B) still leaves the main clinical ambiguity unresolved. Outpatient CDI best practice is to issue a non-leading query requesting provider clarification of the etiology/source of the hemiparesis (e.g., due to prior CVA, due to prior intracranial trauma, both, or other/undetermined). This supports accurate diagnosis reporting, appropriate sequencing, and defensible risk/quality representation.


24. Frage
Which of the following statements is true regarding RADV reviews?

Antwort: B

Begründung:
RADV (Risk Adjustment Data Validation) is an audit process used to validate that risk-adjusting diagnoses submitted for payment are supported by compliant medical record documentation. A foundational requirement is that the record is properly authenticated by an acceptable provider-meaning the documentation must be attributable to the treating clinician through a valid signature. In compliant documentation standards emphasized in outpatient CDI education, acceptable authentication may be a traditional hand-written signature or an electronic signature/attestation that meets organizational and regulatory policy. Option B is not correct because diagnoses do not have to appear only on a facesheet or "final diagnosis" list; they may be supported within the body of the note (assessment/plan, problem-based charting, or other authenticated sections) as long as they are clearly documented and clinically supported. Options A and D are not reliably true statements in a general RADV context because RADV focuses on diagnoses supported by appropriate provider documentation and acceptable encounter record criteria; "technician-assigned" diagnoses are not acceptable, and radiology documentation alone may not meet all validation expectations depending on the program's rules and encounter context.


25. Frage
Upon retrospective review of a patient visit 2 weeks prior, a CDI specialist notes physician documentation stating the following: "Sick Sinus Syndrome in 2016 s/p pacemaker placement. Latest EKG shows normal paced rhythm." There are no codes noted for Sick Sinus Syndrome or the pacemaker. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the CDI specialist?

Antwort: B

Begründung:
In outpatient CDI, diagnoses reported for an encounter must be supported as current and clinically relevant to that visit (evaluated, monitored, assessed, treated, or otherwise affecting care). The note documents a history of sick sinus syndrome with pacemaker placement in 2016 and indicates the current rhythm is paced. The most clearly reportable, present condition is the presence of a cardiac pacemaker, which is a status that can affect clinical decision-making (e.g., interpretation of rhythm findings, medication choices, procedures, and future cardiac evaluation) and is appropriate to code when documented. However, the documentation does not show that sick sinus syndrome itself was actively assessed or managed during this visit; it is referenced as a past condition leading to the device. Because outpatient coding does not assume an active diagnosis solely from historical mention, the best action is to capture the pacemaker status code only. Retrospective amendment requests or rebilling steps are not the first-line CDI action when the documentation does not support active management of the underlying arrhythmia.


26. Frage
Which of the following is designed to reduce claims denials and appeals by providing one-on-one feedback to the provider to increase accuracy in specific areas?

Antwort: D

Begründung:
Targeted Probe and Educate (TPE) is an education-focused review initiative intended to improve billing accuracy and reduce future denials by combining targeted claim review with direct provider/supplier feedback. In outpatient CDI terms, TPE aligns with a "fix-forward" approach: auditors identify specific error patterns (often documentation, medical necessity, coding, or coverage rule issues), then provide one-on-one education so the provider can correct processes and documentation habits. This is distinct from Recovery Audit Contractors (RACs), which primarily identify and recoup improper payments, often after the fact, and are not structured as an individualized education cycle. The OIG Work Plan identifies oversight priorities and areas of potential fraud/waste/abuse; it does not deliver provider-level coaching to reduce denials. CERT measures Medicare improper payment rates through sampling and can drive policy/education broadly, but it is not designed as individualized, iterative provider education. Because TPE is specifically built around targeted review plus direct education to prevent repeat errors and reduce appeals, it is the best answer.


27. Frage
Provider documentation states: "A patient is seen today with DM type 2, peripheral neuropathy with diabetic ulcer of the left great toe, hypertension, and BMI 43. O2 dependent, chronic respiratory failure due to COPD, stopped smoking 2 years ago - 84 packs per year smoking habit." Which of the following query opportunities will impact risk adjustment?

Antwort: C

Begründung:
In ambulatory CDI, "risk adjustment impact" means the clarification can change whether an HCC-relevant condition is captured accurately (or captured at all) based on ICD-10-CM reporting rules. Here, "DM2 with peripheral neuropathy with diabetic ulcer" already establishes diabetes with complications, so querying option B adds little-complications are already documented. "Nicotine dependence" is not supported because the patient stopped smoking two years ago; at most, this supports a history of nicotine dependence, which generally does not drive HCC risk scoring. "Morbid obesity" may be clinically relevant (BMI 43 supports it), but obesity typically does not produce meaningful CMS-HCC risk adjustment impact compared with other chronic categories. The diabetic ulcer does matter: correct reporting requires an additional L97.- code that depends on ulcer severity/depth (skin breakdown, fat layer exposed, necrosis of muscle/bone). Clarifying depth supports accurate ulcer severity coding and can affect HCC capture/validation for chronic ulcer burden.


28. Frage
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