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ACDIS CCDS-O Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Quality, Regulatory, and Health Initiatives: Covers population health, MSSP, ACO models, MACRA
  • MIPS, compliant query development, RADV audits, OIG compliance, problem list maintenance, and HIPAA requirements in outpatient CDI.
Topic 2
  • Risk Adjustment Models and Impact of Documentation and Coding: Covers CMS-HCC model fundamentals, RAF scoring, Medicare Advantage payments, hierarchies, disease interactions, and compliant HCC reporting requirements.
Topic 3
  • Diseases and Disease Processes and Application to the Clinical Chart Review: Covers clinical indicators across all ICD-10-CM chapters, applied to chart reviews, with recognition of medications, diagnostic tests, and abbreviations as documentation clarification triggers.

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ACDIS Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient Sample Questions (Q99-Q104):

NEW QUESTION # 99
A patient was recently admitted to the hospital for emphysema, end stage COPD, and heart failure. The patient was discharged on home oxygen. In preparation for the patient's upcoming PCP visit, the MOST important query opportunity for a CDI specialist is which of the following?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Home oxygen is a strong clinical indicator, but by itself it does not tell why the patient requires it. Outpatient CDI best practice prioritizes clarifying the clinical indication because it drives accurate, compliant diagnosis reporting and supports medical necessity and severity of illness. "Oxygen dependence" (a status concept) may be appropriate, but it is secondary and often incomplete without the underlying condition-such as chronic hypoxic respiratory failure, chronic respiratory failure with hypercapnia, or persistent hypoxemia related to end-stage COPD/emphysema. Clarifying the indication also helps ensure the provider documents objective support (e.g., qualifying O2 sats, ABG findings, exertional vs resting hypoxemia) and ties it to assessment/plan at the PCP visit. While specifying heart failure type (A) is valuable, and emphysema "status" (B) may be less actionable because emphysema is typically chronic and encompassed within COPD management, the oxygen requirement is the most immediate cue of higher acuity and a frequent documentation gap. Therefore, clarifying the indication for home oxygen is the highest-value query opportunity.


NEW QUESTION # 100
Which of the following BEST describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Stage 3 pressure ulcers are defined by full-thickness skin loss where the injury extends through the dermis and involves damage or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue. Clinically, the ulcer may present as a deep crater and can include undermining or tunneling, but the key boundary is that bone, tendon, and muscle are not exposed. That deeper involvement (exposed muscle/tendon/bone) is characteristic of Stage 4, making option C incorrect. Option D describes partial-thickness loss, which aligns with Stage 2 (epidermis/dermis involvement such as abrasion or blister). Option A reflects early skin changes that correspond more closely to Stage 1 (intact skin with non-blanchable erythema and possible localized edema/induration). In outpatient CDI chart review, accurately distinguishing Stage 3 from Stage 2 and Stage 4 is essential because staging drives severity capture, care planning (wound care interventions, debridement considerations), and quality reporting. Documentation should clearly support "full thickness," the tissue layers involved, and the absence of exposed bone/tendon/muscle.


NEW QUESTION # 101
A patient presents to the office complaining of lower abdominal pain and burning urination. Urinalysis indicates WBC >10, positive nitrites, and leuk esterase. Documentation identifies pain, urinary frequency, and fever likely UTI. Cultures are pending for E-Coli. The patient is started on antipyretics and Levaquin. Which of the following conditions can be reported?

Answer: D

Explanation:
In the outpatient setting, uncertain diagnoses described with terms such as "likely," "probable," "suspected," or "rule out" generally are not reported as established conditions for coding purposes. Instead, the encounter is coded to the confirmed signs and symptoms documented and evaluated at that visit. Here, the provider's assessment is "likely UTI," with urine culture results still pending, so a definitive UTI diagnosis is not yet confirmed within the scenario. Likewise, the organism (E. coli) cannot be coded because it is only suspected and not confirmed until culture results are finalized. Outpatient CDI emphasizes aligning reportable diagnoses to what is clearly supported as present and addressed during the visit. The note explicitly identifies pain, urinary frequency, and fever-symptoms that drove evaluation and treatment (antipyretics and antibiotic initiation). Between the answer choices, "abdominal pain, fever, and urinary frequency" best represents the reportable conditions based on documented, evaluated symptoms without coding an uncertain infection diagnosis or an unconfirmed causative organism.


NEW QUESTION # 102
An African American male enrolled in Medicaid has not been taking his blood pressure medication. Which of the following factors impacts this beneficiary's risk score?

Answer: D

Explanation:
Medicaid risk adjustment models generally calculate risk using two major categories of inputs: demographics and diagnosis data. Demographic factors commonly include gender and indicators tied to Medicaid status/eligibility (for example, eligibility category, dual status, disability-related eligibility, or other program qualifiers depending on the state/model). These demographic elements adjust expected cost and are foundational to the risk score even before considering diagnoses. By contrast, race is not a standard input for calculating Medicaid risk scores in typical risk adjustment methodologies, so options that include race are not supported. Likewise, "patient noncompliance" is primarily a clinical and quality-of-care issue and may affect treatment outcomes, but it is not itself a standard risk-score driver unless it is documented as a reportable, supported diagnosis that the specific model recognizes (and most models don't directly risk-adjust for nonadherence codes). Therefore, among the options given, Medicaid status and gender are the most clearly valid factors that impact the beneficiary's risk score.


NEW QUESTION # 103
Which of the following payment models enables Medicare to forecast costs for Medicare Advantage members for the coming year?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Medicare Advantage (MA) payments are risk adjusted so CMS can predict expected healthcare costs for each enrollee in the upcoming payment year. The model used for this forecasting is the CMS-HCC (Hierarchical Condition Category) risk adjustment methodology. It converts demographic factors (such as age/sex and eligibility status) plus documented, coded diagnoses (ICD-10-CM codes that map to HCCs) into a Risk Adjustment Factor (RAF). CMS then uses the RAF to adjust capitation payments to MA plans to reflect the member's anticipated resource needs. This is why outpatient CDI places heavy emphasis on accurate, specific capture and annual "recapture" of active chronic conditions that are monitored, evaluated, assessed/addressed, or treated during the encounter-because the prior year's valid HCCs drive the next year's predicted cost and payment. By contrast, APCs relate to OPPS facility outpatient payment, RVUs/RBRVS relate to physician fee schedule valuation, and GPCIs adjust payment geographically; none of those are the MA risk forecasting model.


NEW QUESTION # 104
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