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| Certification Vendor: | CompTIA |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam (CAS-005) |
| Exam Number: | CAS-005 |
| Exam Duration: | 165 minutes |
| Certificate Validity Period: | 3 years |
| Available Languages: | English |
| Related Certifications: | CompTIA CySA+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA PenTest+ |
| Real Exam Qty: | Up to 90 questions |
| Passing Score: | 750 (on a scale of 100-900) |
| Exam Format: | Multiple-choice, Performance-based questions (PBQs) |
| Exam Price: | $404 USD (may vary by region) |
| Recommended Training: | CompTIA Official Training Resources CompTIA CertMaster Learn & Labs |
| Exam Registration: | CompTIA SecurityX Registration Pearson VUE CompTIA Exams |
| Sample Questions: | CompTIA CAS-005 Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Available via Pearson VUE test centers and online proctored exam |
| Pre Condition: | No mandatory prerequisites; recommended 10+ years of general IT experience with at least 5 years in hands-on security roles |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://www.comptia.org/certifications/securityx |
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NEW QUESTION # 305
An organization is planning for disaster recovery and continuity ofoperations, and has noted the following relevant findings:
1. A natural disaster may disrupt operations at Site A, which would then cause an evacuation. Users are unable to log into the domain from-their workstations after relocating to Site B.
2. A natural disaster may disrupt operations at Site A, which would then cause the pump room at Site B to become inoperable.
3. A natural disaster may disrupt operations at Site A, which would then cause unreliable internet connectivity at Site B due to route flapping.
INSTRUCTIONS
Match each relevant finding to the affected host by clicking on the host name and selecting the appropriate number.
For findings 1 and 2, select the items that should be replicated to Site B. For finding 3, select the item requiring configuration changes, then select the appropriate corrective action from the drop-down menu.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the complete solution below in Explanation
Explanation:
Matching Relevant Findings to the Affected Hosts:
Finding 1:
Affected Host: DNS
Reason: Users are unable to log into the domain from their workstations after relocating to Site B, which implies a failure in domain name services that are critical for user authentication and domain login.
Finding 2:
Affected Host: Pumps
Reason: Thepump room at Site B becoming inoperable directly points to the critical infrastructure components associated with pumping operations.
Finding 3:
Affected Host: VPN Concentrator
Reason: Unreliable internet connectivity at Site B due to route flapping indicates issues with network routing, which is often managed by VPN concentrators that handle site-to-site connectivity.
Corrective Actions for Finding 3:
Finding 3 Corrective Action:
Action: Modify the BGP configuration
Reason: Route flapping is often related to issues with Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) configurations. Adjusting BGP settings can stabilize routes and improve internet connectivity reliability.
Replication to Site B for Finding 1:
Affected Host: DNS
Domain Name System (DNS) services are essential for translating domain names into IP addresses, allowing users to log into the network. Replicating DNS services ensures that even if Site A is disrupted, users at Site B can still authenticate and access necessary resources.
Replication to Site B for Finding 2:
Affected Host: Pumps
The operation of the pump room is crucial for maintaining various functions within the infrastructure. Replicating the control systems and configurations for the pumps at Site B ensures that operations can continue smoothly even if Site A is affected.
Configuration Changes for Finding 3:
Affected Host: VPN Concentrator
Route flapping is a situation where routes become unstable, causing frequent changes in the best path for data to travel. This instability can be mitigated by modifying BGP configurations to ensure more stable routing. VPN concentrators, which manage connections between sites, are typically configured with BGP for optimal routing.
Reference:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: This guide provides detailed information on disaster recovery and continuity of operations, emphasizing the importance of replicating critical services and making necessary configuration changes to ensure seamless operation during disruptions.
CompTIA Security+ Exam Objectives: These objectives highlight key areas in disaster recovery planning, including the replication of critical services and network configuration adjustments.
Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity Planning (DRBCP): This resource outlines best practices for ensuring that operations can continue at an alternate site during a disaster, including the replication of essential services and network stability measures.
By ensuring that critical services like DNS and control systems for pumps are replicated at the alternate site, and by addressing network routing issues through proper BGP configuration, the organization can maintain operational continuity and minimize the impact of natural disasters on their operations.
NEW QUESTION # 306
A company's security policy states that any publicly available server must be patched within 12 hours after a patch is released A recent llS zero-day vulnerability was discovered that affects all versions of the Windows Server OS:
Which of the following hosts should a security analyst patch first once a patch is available?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Based on the security policy that any publicly available server must be patched within 12 hours after a patch is released, the securityanalyst should patch Host 1 first. Here's why:
Public Availability: Host 1 is externally available, making it accessible from the internet. Publicly available servers are at higher risk of being targeted by attackers, especially when a zero-day vulnerability is known.
Exposure to Threats: Host 1 has IIS installed and is publicly accessible, increasing its exposure to potential exploitation. Patching this host first reduces the risk of a successful attack.
Prioritization of Critical Assets: According to best practices, assets that are exposed to higher risks should be prioritized for patching to mitigate potential threats promptly.
Reference:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
NIST Special Publication 800-40: Guide toEnterprise Patch Management Technologies CIS Controls: Control 3 - Continuous Vulnerability Management
NEW QUESTION # 307
An organization recently acquired another company that is running a different EDR solution. A SOC analyst wants to automate the isolation of endpoints that are found to be compromised. Which of the following workflows best mitigates the risk of false positives and reduces the spread of malicious code?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
SecurityX CAS-005 emphasizes automation with validation in security operations. Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR) platforms can integrate with Threat Intelligence Platforms (TIPs) to verify threat indicators before triggering automated endpoint isolation through EDR APIs. This approach reduces the spread of malware while minimizing the chance of isolating clean systems due to false positives.
* Isolating endpoints on any alert (B) is high-risk and can disrupt business operations.
* Manual review (C) is too slow for fast-moving threats.
* Suppressing alerts (D) risks missing critical events entirely.
NEW QUESTION # 308
A social media company wants to change encryption ciphers after identifying weaknesses in the implementation of the existing ciphers. The company needs the new ciphers to meet the following requirements:
* Utilize less RAM than competing ciphers.
* Be more CPU-efficient than previous ciphers.
* Require customers to use TLS 1.3 while broadcasting video or audio.
Which of the following is the best choice for the social media company?
Answer: B
Explanation:
ChaCha20-Poly1305is a cipher suite specifically designed for efficiency on systems with limited hardware resources. It offers high security with lower memory and CPU consumption compared to AES on certain platforms, especially mobile devices. TLS 1.3 supports ChaCha20-Poly1305 natively. CBC (Cipher Block Chaining) modes like IDEA-CBC and Camellia-CBC are less efficient and not recommended under TLS 1.3, and AES-GCM, while secure, can be less efficient than ChaCha20 on devices without AES hardware acceleration.
Reference:CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005, Domain 3.0: Implement secure protocols including TLS 1.3 and lightweight cipher selections for performance efficiency.
NEW QUESTION # 309
An organization has been using self-managed encryption keys rather than the free keys managed by the cloud provider. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) reviews the monthly bill and realizes the self- managed keys are more costly than anticipated. Which of the following should the CISO recommend to reduce costs while maintaining a strong security posture?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step by Step Explanation:
* Understanding the Scenario: The organization is using customer-managed encryption keys in the cloud, which is more expensive than using the cloud provider's free managed keys. The CISO needs to find a way to reduce costs without significantly weakening the security posture.
* Analyzing the Answer Choices:
* A. Utilize an on-premises HSM to locally manage keys: While on-premises HSMs offer strong security, they introduce additional costs and complexity (procurement, maintenance, etc.). This option is unlikely to reduce costs compared to cloud-based key management.
* B. Adjust the configuration for cloud provider keys on data that is classified as public: This is the most practical and cost-effective approach. Data classified as public doesn't require the same level of protection as sensitive data. Using the cloud provider's free managed keys for public data can significantly reduce costs without compromising security, as the data is intended to be publicly accessible anyway.
NEW QUESTION # 310
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