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Two 112-57 practice tests of DumpsTorrent (desktop and web-based) create an actual test scenario and give you a 112-57 real exam feeling. These 112-57 practice tests also help you gauge your EC-COUNCIL Certification Exams preparation and identify areas where improvements are necessary. You can alter the duration and quantity of EC-COUNCIL 112-57 Questions in these 112-57 practice exams as per your training needs.
NEW QUESTION # 12
Bob, a security specialist at an organization, extracted the following IIS log from a Windows-based server:
"2019-12-12
06:11:41 192.168.0.10 GET /images/content/bg_body1.jpg - 80 - 192.168.0.27 Mozilla/5.0+(Windows+NT+6.
3;+WOW64)+AppleWebKit/537.36+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Chrome/48.0.2564.103+Safari/537.36
http://www.moviescope.com/css/style.css 200 0 0 365"
Identify the element in the above IIS log entry that indicates the request was fulfilled without error.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In Microsoft IIS (W3C Extended) logging, each request line records multiple standardized fields that help investigators reconstruct what was accessed, by whom, and with what outcome. Among these fields, the most direct indicator of whether the server successfully handled the request is theHTTP status codecaptured in thesc-statusfield. A status code of200means"OK", indicating the server located the requested resource (here,
/images/content/bg_body1.jpg) and returned it successfully to the client without application-level failure.
Other numbers in the entry represent different attributes:80is the server port used for the HTTP request,
192values appear as part of IP addressing (client/server addresses), and537is embedded in the user-agent string (AppleWebKit build number), not a success indicator. IIS often logs additional substatus and Win32 status values (e.g.,sc-substatusandsc-win32-status) to refine the outcome; in the shown line, those follow the
200 as "200 0 0 ...", reinforcing that no substatus error or OS-level error occurred. Therefore,200is the element confirming the request was fulfilled without error.
NEW QUESTION # 13
Which of the following types of phishing attacks allows an attacker to exploit instant messaging platforms by employing IM as a tool to spread spam?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Spimmingis defined in digital forensics and cybercrime references asspam over instant messaging (IM). It is a social-engineering variant where attackers use instant messaging platforms (and sometimes chat apps) to deliver unsolicited bulk messages containing malicious links, fraudulent offers, credential-harvesting lures, or malware downloads. Because IM messages are often delivered in real time and can appear to come from known contacts (via compromised accounts), spimming can achieve higher click-through rates than traditional email spam. For investigators, spimming incidents commonly leave artifacts such as chat logs, message timestamps, sender identifiers, embedded URLs, and sometimes downloaded payload traces on the endpoint.
These artifacts help establish attacker infrastructure (domains, IPs), victim interaction (click events, file creation), and timeline correlation with network logs.
The other options do not match the "IM as a tool to spread spam" description.Whalingtargets high-profile individuals via highly tailored phishing, typically email-based.Pharmingredirects users to fraudulent websites (often via DNS or host-file manipulation) without relying on bulk IM spam.Spear phishingis targeted phishing toward specific individuals or groups, not necessarily IM spam. Therefore, the phishing/spam attack that exploits instant messaging platforms isSpimming (C).
NEW QUESTION # 14
Which of the following techniques is defined as the art of hiding data "behind" other data without the target's knowledge, thereby hiding the existence of the message itself?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Steganographyis the technique of concealing a messagewithin another seemingly harmless carrier(such as an image, audio file, video, or document) so that theexistence of the hidden message is not apparentto an observer. Digital forensics references distinguish steganography from encryption: encryption scrambles content but usually leaves visible indicators that protected data exists (ciphertext), while steganography aims to make the communication look ordinary, reducing suspicion. In practice, steganographic methods often embed data into redundant or less perceptible parts of the carrier, such as modifying least significant bits in pixel values, altering frequency components in audio, or inserting data into metadata or unused file structures.
The other options do not match the definition.Password crackingis an access technique to recover authentication secrets, not a concealment method.Artifact wipingis an anti-forensics method intended to remove traces (logs, files, slack space remnants), but it does not "hide behind" other data-it destroys or overwrites evidence.Program packerscompress/obfuscate executables to hinder static analysis and detection, but they still produce an executable whose presence is evident; they do not primarily hide messages inside benign files. Therefore, the described "hiding the existence of the message itself" corresponds toSteganography (C).
NEW QUESTION # 15
Which of the following data acquisition formats supports the Lempel-Ziv-Markov chain (LZMA) algorithm for compression?
Answer: D
Explanation:
In digital forensics, acquisition formats differ mainly in how they store evidence data, metadata, and whether they support features like compression, segmentation, and integrity verification. ARaw formatis a sector-by- sector bitstream image (often called "dd" style) and typically doesnotdefine built-in compression or structured metadata; any compression would be external to the format. "Proprietary format" is not a single defined standard-some proprietary images may compress data, but the option is too generic and not tied to a specific, documented compression method.
The format known in forensic documentation for explicitly supporting modern compression such asLZMAisAFF4 (Advanced Forensic Format 4), which is designed as a next-generation container supporting rich metadata, hashing, chunked storage, and pluggable compression options. AFF4's architecture stores evidence in compressed chunks/streams and commonly associates LZMA with efficient, high-ratio compression while preserving forensic requirements such as repeatable verification through cryptographic hashes.
The option "Advanced ForensicFramework 4" corresponds toAFF4in many exam question banks and training materials. Therefore, the correct choice isC, because AFF4 is the acquisition format recognized for supportingLZMA compressionas part of its standardized capabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 16
John, a forensic officer, was working on a criminal case. He employed imaging software to create a copy of data from the suspect device on a storage medium for further investigation. For developing an image of the original data, John used a software application that does not allow an unauthorized user to alter the image content on storage media, thereby retaining an unaltered image copy.
Identify the data acquisition step performed by John in the above scenario.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The scenario emphasizes that John used an application (or mechanism) thatprevents alteration of the acquired image content, ensuring the image remainsunalteredand protected from unauthorized modification. In forensic acquisition standards, this corresponds toenabling write protectionduring imaging-commonly implemented using awrite blocker(hardware or controlled software write-protection) to prevent any writes to the source evidence and, where applicable, to protect the integrity of the evidence copy from accidental or unauthorized changes. The purpose is to preserve evidential integrity by ensuring that neither the original media nor the forensic image is modified during handling, analysis preparation, or transfer.
"Validated data acquisition" refers to confirming the image is an exact duplicate, typically by computing and comparing cryptographic hashes (e.g., MD5/SHA) of the source and the acquired image. While validation is essential, the question specifically highlightspreventing alteration, not verifying equality. "Sanitized the target media" is the step of wiping/clearing the destination drive before acquisition to avoid contamination, which is not what is described. "Planned for contingency" relates to operational planning for unexpected issues (equipment failure, encryption, power loss), not integrity protection. Therefore, the best match isEnabled write protection on the evidence media (A).
NEW QUESTION # 17
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