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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionObjectives
Topic 1: Physician Activities- Professionalism
  • 1. Lifelong learning
  • 2. Self-awareness and reflection
  • 3. Physician health for sustainable practice
  • 4. Leadership and scholarly habits
  • 5. Ethics and legal duties
- Management
  • 1. Pharmacological and non-pharmacological treatment
  • 2. Therapeutic interventions
  • 3. Follow-up planning
- Assessment
  • 1. Investigations and diagnostic reasoning
  • 2. Physical examination
  • 3. History taking
- Communication
  • 1. Informed consent
  • 2. Physician-patient communication
  • 3. Breaking bad news
  • 4. Team communication
Topic 2: Dimensions of Care- Chronic Care
  • 1. Chronic disease management
  • 2. Rehabilitation
  • 3. Long-term care
- Psychosocial Aspects
  • 1. Patient communication
  • 2. Mental health and behavioral sciences
  • 3. Psychosocial determinants of health
- Acute Care
  • 1. Management of acute medical conditions
  • 2. Emergency and critical care
  • 3. Acute presentations and stabilization
- Health Promotion and Illness Prevention
  • 1. Screening and periodic health exams
  • 2. Health maintenance
  • 3. Risk factor reduction
  • 4. Disease prevention measures
  • 5. Patient education

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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q107-Q112):

NEW QUESTION # 107
A 12-year-old boy initially presents with a 4-month history of left knee pain. He denies any obvious history of trauma, but he plays basketball frequently and notes his pain is worse after playing. On physical examination the patient has a prominent tibial tubercle, which is swollen and tender. There is full range of motion in the knee. A radiograph of the left knee reveals an ossicle anterior to the tibial tuberosity. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer: E

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Osgood-Schlatter disease is a traction apophysitis of the tibial tubercle due to repetitive stress from the quadriceps during growth. It is common in active adolescents and presents with a tender, prominent tibial tuberosity and typical radiographic findings.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics / MSK:
"Osgood-Schlatter disease presents with localized pain at the tibial tuberosity in adolescents involved in sports. X-ray may show ossicle or fragmentation." MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-2: MSK Injuries and Overuse):
"Candidates must identify overuse syndromes like Osgood-Schlatter and distinguish from infections or malignancy." Osteomyelitis (A) is systemic. Osteosarcoma (B) causes deep pain, often at night. Chondromalacia (C) affects anterior knee and worsens with stairs. Patellar tendinitis (D) affects the inferior pole of patella, not tibial tubercle.


NEW QUESTION # 108
A 27-year-old woman presents with an enlarged thyroid. She had not noticed it herself until her mother brought it to her attention. She is asymptomatic from an endocrine perspective, and her serum thyroid- stimulating hormone (TSH) is normal.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step?

Answer: E

Explanation:
In a euthyroid patient with an asymptomatic goiter or thyroid enlargement, the next step is a thyroid ultrasound to evaluate nodule size, composition, and features suggestive of malignancy.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, Thyroid Nodules and Goiter:
"TSH should be obtained first. If normal and there is a palpable mass or enlargement, ultrasound is indicated to evaluate for nodules and guide further testing (e.g., FNA)." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Endocrinology:
"Candidates must use thyroid ultrasound as the initial imaging study in the evaluation of thyroid enlargement or palpable nodules." T3/T4 (A) are not needed with normal TSH. FNA (D) is done if nodules are identified. CT (C) is used for retrosternal goiters or compressive symptoms. Calcium (E) is irrelevant here.


NEW QUESTION # 109
You are counselling a couple that is concerned about the risk that their second child could be affected by the same X-linked recessive disorder (hemophilia A) as their last child, a boy. Neither parent has this disorder.
What is the probability that their second child will be affected?

Answer: B

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
In X-linked recessive disorders such as hemophilia A, carrier mothers (usually asymptomatic) have a 50% chance of passing the affected X chromosome to each son, who would then express the disease. Each daughter has a 50% chance of being a carrier but is generally not affected.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Genetics:
"X-linked recessive inheritance: Carrier mother has a 50% chance of having an affected son and a 50% chance of having a carrier daughter." MCCQE1 Objectives (Genetics > 61-1: Inheritance Patterns):
"Candidates must apply principles of X-linked inheritance to assess risk in offspring." If the mother is a known carrier (as inferred from having an affected son), the chance of a second affected boy is 50%.


NEW QUESTION # 110
A 14-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department with a 20-minute history of difficulty breathing that started during a school assembly. She has had similar symptoms 3 times in the last 2 weeks. These episodes develop rapidly and resolve gradually over several minutes. She reports tingling in her fingers and toes. On examination, her vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure
120/80 mm Hg
Heart rate
100/min
Respiratory rate
22/min
Oxygen saturation on room air
95%
Temperature
36.9 °C, orally
Apart from mildly dilated pupils, her examination is otherwise normal. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer: E

Explanation:
This teenager presents with acute-onset dyspnea, paresthesias, and normal physical findings, consistent with a panic attack. Panic attacks often mimic cardiopulmonary pathology but are marked by symptoms like hyperventilation, tingling in the extremities, palpitations, and subjective air hunger with normal vitals and oxygenation.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry:
"Panic attacks are characterized by sudden onset of intense fear or discomfort, accompanied by somatic symptoms such as dyspnea, paresthesias, tachycardia, and fear of losing control." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-3: Anxiety Disorders):
"Candidates must recognize panic attacks based on clinical features and differentiate them from cardiopulmonary conditions." Normal O2 saturation and physical exam rule out asthma or pericarditis. Cocaine use would present with more systemic toxicity. PSVT would cause consistent tachycardia.


NEW QUESTION # 111
A 32-year-old man presents to the clinic for assessment of a dog bite sustained 3 days ago while traveling in another country. He recalls having seen the dog eat where he was staying, and the animal did not appear well.
On examination, the patient has 2 distinct deep puncture wounds on his left leg. There is an erythematous border but no exudate. He is unsure of his immunization status. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management?

Answer: D

Explanation:
Dog bites from animals of unknown rabies status, especially from endemic regions and in patients with uncertain immunization status, require immediate post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) including both rabies immunoglobulin and vaccine. The decision is urgent given the fatal nature of rabies.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Infectious Diseases, "Rabies Exposure":
"Rabies PEP is indicated for bites from animals with unknown vaccination status or those showing abnormal behavior, particularly in endemic regions. PEP includes both vaccine and immunoglobulin." MCCQE1 Objectives (Public Health > 64-1: Rabies and Animal Bites):
"Candidates must recognize indications for rabies post-exposure prophylaxis." Ciprofloxacin (C) is not the antibiotic of choice (amoxicillin-clavulanate is preferred). Hydrogen peroxide (E) can be cytotoxic. Debridement (B) and CK (D) are not immediate priorities here.


NEW QUESTION # 112
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