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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Security Operations | 33% | - Security monitoring concepts and tools
|
| Vulnerability Management | 30% | - Vulnerability assessment processes
|
| Incident Response Management | 20% | - Coordination and communication
|
| Reporting and Communication | 17% | - Data visualization and presentation
|
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NEW QUESTION # 317
A vulnerability scan shows the following vulnerabilities in the environment:
At the same time, the following security advisory was released:
"A zero-day vulnerability with a CVSS score of 10 may be affecting your web server. The vendor is working on a patch or workaround." Which of the following actions should the security analyst take first?
Answer: A
Explanation:
In this scenario, the security analyst is presented with multiple vulnerabilities, including a critical zero-day vulnerability affecting the web server with a CVSS score of 10. The CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) provides a standardized method for rating IT vulnerabilities, with a score of 10 indicating the highest severity.
Option A: Contact the web systems administrator and request that they shut down the asset.
Correct Choice: Given the critical nature of a zero-day vulnerability with a CVSS score of 10, immediate action is warranted to prevent potential exploitation. Shutting down the affected web server reduces the attack surface and mitigates the risk until a patch or workaround is available. This aligns with incident response best practices, where containment is a priority to prevent further damage.
Option B: Monitor the patch releases for all items and escalate patching to the appropriate team.
Incorrect Choice: While monitoring for patches is essential, it is a reactive approach. In the case of a zero-day vulnerability with active exploitation potential, waiting for a patch without implementing immediate protective measures exposes the organization to significant risk.
Option C: Run the vulnerability scan again to verify the presence of the critical finding and the zero-day vulnerability in the environment.
Incorrect Choice: Re-scanning may confirm the vulnerability's presence but does not address the immediate threat. Action to mitigate the risk should take precedence over verification, especially when the vulnerability is known and critical.
Option D: Forward the advisory to the web security team and initiate the prioritization strategy for the other vulnerabilities.
Incorrect Choice: Communicating with the web security team is important; however, in the face of a critical zero-day vulnerability, immediate action (such as shutting down the affected asset) is necessary before addressing other vulnerabilities.
Reference:
CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Exam Objective 3.2: "Given a scenario, perform incident response activities." This includes containment strategies to address active threats effectively.
NEW QUESTION # 318
A security administrator needs to import Pll data records from the production environment to the test environment for testing purposes. Which of the following would best protect data confidentiality?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data masking is a technique that replaces sensitive data with fictitious or anonymized data, while preserving the original format and structure of the data. This way, the data can be used for testing purposes without revealing the actual Pll information. Data masking is one of the best practices for data analysis of confidential data1. References: CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, page 343; Best Practices for Data Analysis of Confidential Data
NEW QUESTION # 319
An incident response team is working with law enforcement to investigate an active web server compromise.
The decision has been made to keep the server running and to implement compensating controls for a period of time. The web service must be accessible from the internet via the reverse proxy and must connect to a database server. Which of the following compensating controls will help contain the adversary while meeting the other requirements? (Select two).
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Deploying EDR on the web server and the database server to reduce the adversaries capabilities and using micro segmentation to restrict connectivity to/from the web and database servers are two compensating controls that will help contain the adversary while meeting the other requirements. A compensating control is a security measure that is implemented to mitigate the risk of a vulnerability or an attack when the primary control is not feasible or effective. EDR stands for Endpoint Detection and Response, which is a tool that monitors endpoints for malicious activity and provides automated or manual response capabilities. EDR can help contain the adversary by detecting and blocking their actions, such as data exfiltration, lateral movement, privilege escalation, or command execution. Micro segmentation is a technique that divides a network into smaller segments based on policies and rules, and applies granular access controls to each segment. Micro segmentation can help contain the adversary by isolating the web and database servers from other parts of the network, and limiting the traffic that can flow between them. Official References:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered
NEW QUESTION # 320
An older CVE with a vulnerability score of 7.1 was elevated to a score of 9.8 due to a widely available exploit being used to deliver ransomware. Which of the following factors would an analyst most likely communicate as the reason for this escalation?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Weaponization is a factor that describes how an adversary develops or acquires an exploit or payload that can take advantage of a vulnerability and deliver a malicious effect. Weaponization can increase the severity or impact of a vulnerability, as it makes it easier or more likely for an attacker to exploit it successfully and cause damage or harm. Weaponization can also indicate the level of sophistication or motivation of an attacker, as well as the availability or popularity of an exploit or payload in the cyber threat landscape. In this case, an older CVE with a vulnerability score of 7.1 was elevated to a score of 9.8 due to a widely available exploit being used to deliver ransomware. This indicates that weaponization was the reason for this escalation.
NEW QUESTION # 321
An analyst has discovered the following suspicious command:
Which of the following would best describe the outcome of the command?
Answer: B
Explanation:
ThePHP script allows remote users to execute system commands via the system() function, meaning an attacker can send arbitrary commands to the server.
* Option A (Cross-site scripting - XSS)is incorrect because this script does not inject JavaScript into a webpage.
* Option B (Reverse shell)is possible if an attacker sends a crafted command, but the script itself is more of a general backdoor than a dedicated reverse shell.
* Option D (Logic bomb)is incorrect because a logic bomb is typicallytriggered by a specific event or daterather than executing arbitrary commands on demand.
Thus,C (Backdoor attempt) is the best answer, as this scriptgrants unauthorized remote command execution.
NEW QUESTION # 322
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