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CSI CSC2 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Weight	Objectives
Derivative Securities	20%	- Option Contracts - Forward Contracts - Swaps - Futures Contracts
Portfolio Management	20%	- Portfolio Concepts and Risk/Return - Performance Measurement - Managed Products - Portfolio Planning and Construction
Corporate Finance	20%	- Working Capital Management - Capital Budgeting - Capital Structure and Dividend Policy - Mergers, Acquisitions, and Corporate Restructuring
Analysis of Equity Securities	20%	- Financial Statement Analysis - Valuation Methods - Growth and Defensive Stocks - Industry Analysis
Fixed Income Securities	20%	- Government Bonds and Money Market Securities - Corporate Bonds - Risks of Fixed Income Investments - Bond Pricing and Yield Measures

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CSI Canadian Securities Course Exam2 Sample Questions (Q108-Q113):

NEW QUESTION # 108
How do the fees differ between an F-class and front-end version of the same fund?

A. The management expense ratio is higher on the F-class fund.
B. The management expense ratio is lower on the F-class fund.
C. The fees are identical
D. The commission changed is higher on the F-class fund.

Answer: B

Explanation:
F-class funds are designed for fee-based accounts, where investors pay advisors a separate fee for services rather than a commission. This structure impacts the Management Expense Ratio (MER).
* Management Expense Ratio (MER):
* F-Class Funds: Exclude embedded advisor commissions, resulting in lower MER. These funds are cost-effective for investors in fee-based arrangements.
* Front-End Funds: Include advisor commissions as part of the MER, increasing overall costs.
* Fee Structure:
* F-class funds charge a flat management fee without embedded commissions, offering more transparency.
* Front-end funds involve a sales charge (front-end load) that compensates advisors directly at the time of purchase.
Key Differences Between F-Class and Front-End FundsWhy A is CorrectThe lower MER of F-class funds reflects the absence of embedded advisor fees, making them more attractive to fee-conscious investors.
References:
* Volume 2, Section 25: Fee-Based Accounts-Advantages and Structure of F-Class Funds.
* Volume 2, Section 17: Mutual Funds-Charges Associated with Funds.

NEW QUESTION # 109
What is the Sharpe ratio given the following information?

A. 0.4
B. 1.5
C. 0
D. 2.5

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 110
What action must an investment advisor take when submitting a trade ticket for a short sale?

A. Obtain minimum margin amount from client
B. Mark the sell-order ticket as a short sate
C. Verify the client can borrow the shares.
D. Mark it as a margin order

Answer: B

Explanation:
When submitting a trade ticket for a short sale, an investment advisor mustmark the sell-order ticket as a short sale. This ensures compliance with regulatory requirements and informs the broker and exchange that the sale involves borrowed shares. Marking the order appropriately helps maintain transparency and enables monitoring for potential market manipulation.
* A. Verify the client can borrow the shares: The responsibility for ensuring share availability lies with the broker, not the advisor.
* C. Obtain minimum margin amount from client: This is done separately as part of the account setup and transaction process, not when submitting the trade ticket.
* D. Mark it as a margin order: Short sales involve margin, but the ticket must specifically indicate "short sale" rather than just "margin."

NEW QUESTION # 111
The XYZL mutual fund distributes realized capital gains of $1.50. What is the effect of this distribution?

A. Investors will reduce the adjusted cost base of their holdings in the fund.
B. The net asset value per share will drop $1.50 as a result of the distribution.
C. The mutual fund will have to declare taxable income of $0.75 per share.
D. Each investor will have to report taxable income of $1.50 per share.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 112
A portfolio manager is reviewing the current asset mix of a portfolio. Some securities have done really well, while others have experienced poor returns. How can the portfolio manager rebalance the portfolio to ensure it remains aligned with the client's long-term goals?

A. Reallocate assets back to their target weights by selling securities that have performed well and buying securities that have done poorly.
B. Create cash reserves for future potential investment opportunities by selling securities that have performed well.
C. Reallocate assets back to their target weights by buying securities that have performed well and selling securities that have done poorly.
D. Create cash reserves for future potential investment opportunities by selling securities that have done poorly.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Portfolio rebalancing restores the portfolio to its target asset allocation after market movements cause some holdings to drift above or below their intended weights. Securities or asset classes that have performed strongly may become overweight, increasing portfolio risk beyond the client's investment policy. Securities that have performed poorly may become underweight. The disciplined rebalancing process is to sell part of the overweight positions and buy underweight positions, assuming they remain suitable within the portfolio strategy. Option A does the opposite and would increase concentration in winners. Options B and C focus on creating cash rather than restoring the target allocation. The correct rebalancing action is to sell outperforming overweight holdings and buy underperforming underweight holdings.

NEW QUESTION # 113
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