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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Threat Prevention Dashboard and Monitoring | 10% | - Threat Prevention statistics and trends - Threat Prevention logs and reporting - Using SmartConsole for monitoring - Troubleshooting Threat Prevention issues |
| Anti-Bot and Anti-Virus | 15% | - Anti-Virus scanning methods (streamed vs. traditional) - Bot and malware signature updates - Bot detection mechanisms - Configuring Anti-Bot and Anti-Virus policies |
| Threat Emulation (SandBlast) | 15% | - Threat Emulation architecture and deployment - File emulation process and verdicts - Zero-day threat protection - Threat Emulation policy configuration |
| IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) | 20% | - IPS exceptions and whitelisting - IPS policy configuration and tuning - IPS signatures and protections - IPS logging and alerts - IPS architecture and deployment modes |
| Threat Extraction | 10% | - Threat Extraction policy configuration - PDF, Office document, and archive sanitization - Threat Extraction (Sanboxing) concepts |
| Threat Prevention Policy | 20% | - Threat Prevention action settings - Creating and configuring Threat Prevention profiles - Applying Threat Prevention policy layers - Profile-based vs. rule-based configurations |
| Threat Prevention Overview and Architecture | 10% | - Check Point Threat Prevention solution overview - Security Gateway integration with Threat Prevention - Threat Prevention architecture and components |
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NEW QUESTION # 65
Which is NOT true of Threat Prevention policy application?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Traffic is matched against all applicable layers at the same time . Threat Prevention policy evaluation is not best described as a flat simultaneous match against all applicable layers.
Check Point documentation explains that Threat Prevention Policy Layers are Ordered Layers , and that each ordered layer calculates its action separately from the other layers. In a single-layer policy package, the enforced rule is the first matched rule. In multiple-layer policy behavior, matching and enforcement are determined by the layer calculations and the applicable action logic, rather than by one undifferentiated simultaneous match model.
Option A is true because Threat Prevention inspection is applied after the Access Control policy allows the connection; traffic dropped or rejected by Access Control does not proceed to Threat Prevention enforcement.
Option C is true for a single Threat Prevention layer because the first matching rule is enforced. Option D is also true because Threat Prevention uses ordered policy-layer behavior. The false statement is therefore option B. Reference topics: Threat Prevention Policy, Ordered Layers, first-match rule behavior, Access Control before Threat Prevention, multi-layer enforcement logic.
NEW QUESTION # 66
Which feature can improve performance by allowing the gateway to bypass Anti-Virus inspection of specific files?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Exclusions . In Anti-Virus policy design, exclusions are used to remove selected traffic or file categories from Anti-Virus inspection when inspection is unnecessary, redundant, or too costly for the business flow. Check Point documentation states that Threat Prevention can be configured to exclude files from inspection , including examples such as internal emails and internal file transfers. The same section explains that these settings are based on interface type and traffic direction.
This directly aligns with the performance objective in the question: if the gateway does not inspect files that are already trusted, internal, or operationally low-risk, Anti-Virus consumes fewer CPU, memory, buffering, and content-inspection resources. Content Control is not the Anti-Virus bypass feature named in this context.
Exceptions are policy-level constructs that can exclude traffic from Threat Prevention enforcement, but the question specifically asks for the feature that improves Anti-Virus performance by bypassing inspection of specific files, which is Exclusions . Bypass describes the effect, not the named feature. Reference topics:
Anti-Virus Settings, Protected Scope, file inspection exclusions, interface direction, Threat Prevention performance optimization.
NEW QUESTION # 67
What deployment options for SmartEvent exist?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. 1. Integrated/Standalone and 2. Dedicated Server . SmartEvent is Check Point's event analysis, correlation, and reporting platform. Official Check Point Logging and Monitoring documentation explains that SmartEvent Server is integrated with the Security Management Server architecture and can communicate with Log Servers to read and analyze logs. It further states that administrators can enable SmartEvent on the Security Management Server or deploy it as a dedicated server . In Multi-Domain environments, Check Point requires SmartEvent on a dedicated server.
This maps directly to the course terminology: integrated or standalone deployment means SmartEvent runs on the existing management architecture, while a dedicated server deployment separates SmartEvent components onto another machine for scale, retention, performance, or Multi-Domain requirements. Option A uses generic distributed language but not the tested Check Point deployment wording. Option C confuses SmartEvent deployment with Threat Prevention enforcement states such as Prevent and Detect. Option D refers to clustering concepts and does not describe SmartEvent deployment models. In production design, dedicated SmartEvent is preferred when log volume is high, reporting is heavily used, or event correlation must not compete with management operations. Reference topics: Deploying SmartEvent, SmartEvent Server, Correlation Unit, Integrated/Standalone deployment, Dedicated SmartEvent Server.
NEW QUESTION # 68
Who owns and maintains the CVE program and database?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. MITRE Corporation . CVE, or Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures, is the standardized naming system used across security vendors, vulnerability databases, IPS signatures, advisories, scanners, and remediation programs. In a Check Point Threat Prevention context, CVE identifiers are important because IPS protections frequently map detections and exploit protections to known vulnerabilities.
This allows administrators to correlate a Check Point IPS protection with vendor advisories, exposure management, patching, and risk prioritization. The official CVE site describes CVE as an authoritative reference method for publicly known information-security vulnerabilities and exposures. MITRE documentation states that The MITRE Corporation maintains CVE and its public website , manages compatibility, and provides technical guidance to the CVE Editorial Board.
The distractors represent related but distinct roles. DHS/CISA has historically sponsored or funded the program, but sponsorship is not ownership and maintenance of the CVE list itself. NIST maintains the National Vulnerability Database, which enriches CVE data with scoring and analysis, but NVD is downstream from CVE identifiers. Check Point consumes CVE intelligence through IPS and ThreatCloud- driven protections; it does not own the CVE program. Reference topics: IPS vulnerability mapping, CVE- based protection metadata, threat intelligence normalization, vulnerability-to-protection correlation.
NEW QUESTION # 69
Which process is responsible for communication with the Check Point ThreatCloud for the sake of Anti-Virus Protection Update?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. The CPAS Daemon (cpasd) . In the course-guide context, cpasd is the process associated with Anti-Virus communication toward Check Point ThreatCloud for protection-update and classification purposes. The functional reason is that Anti-Virus file inspection depends on Check Point's ThreatSpect and ThreatCloud intelligence pipeline. Check Point documentation explains that each Security Gateway has a Malware database and a local cache; when the cache has no answer, it queries the ThreatCloud repository. For Anti-Virus, the signature is sent for file classification.
The ThreatCloud network is dynamically updated and distributes attack information that can convert zero-day attack data into known signatures that Anti-Virus can block. This explains why the communication process matters: AV enforcement is not limited to a static local signature set; it relies on cloud-assisted reputation, classification, and continuously updated intelligence. The distractors do not match this function. RAD is mainly associated with resource categorization and URL/Application intelligence. pslavd is not the ThreatCloud update communication process named in this question. ted belongs to Threat Emulation, not Anti-Virus protection updates. Reference topics: Anti-Virus, CPAS/cpasd, ThreatCloud repository, Malware database, local cache, file classification.
NEW QUESTION # 70
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