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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Individual Pay Calculations | 40% | - Regular earnings
|
| Record of Employment (ROE) | 20% | - Submission and deadlines
|
| Termination and Special Payments | 30% | - Termination payments
|
| Communication and Compliance | 10% | - Stakeholder communication
|
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NEW QUESTION # 22
Charmaine's employment was terminated by her employer on April 13 of the current year. Charmaine had worked for her employer for 3 years and was paid 3 weeks of legislated wages in lieu of notice and two weeks' vacation pay with her final pay. What date should be recorded in Block 11 on Charmaine's Record of Employment?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Block 11 on the ROE is the "Last day for which paid," meaning the last day the employee received insurable earnings. In most terminations, this is the employee's last day of work. Service Canada notes Block 11 only moves beyond the last day worked when the employee continues to receive insurable earnings after the last day of work due to paid leave (such as vacation leave or sick leave) or salary continuance.
In this question, Charmaine's employment ended April 13, and she received a lump-sum final pay that included wages in lieu of notice and vacation pay. These amounts are typically reported as special payments (for example, pay in lieu of notice is reported as such), but they do not automatically change Block 11 unless they are paid as an actual paid-leave period or as salary continuance (where regular pay continues and the ROE is not issued until the continuance ends).
NEW QUESTION # 23
By the authority of which Act can the Canada Revenue Agency garnish the wages of an employee who has failed to pay Employment Insurance premiums, Canada Pension Plan contributions, or income tax deductions?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The CRA's wage garnishment tool is commonly issued as a Requirement to Pay (RTP) (and related instruments such as ERTP/DTP), which directs a third party (often the employer) to redirect amounts that would otherwise be paid to the employee, and send them to the government instead. CRA guidance explains that when an employee owes money, the CRA can send the employer a requirement to pay notice, and the employer must remit the amounts as instructed (or the employer can become liable).
The legal authority for the CRA to issue a Requirement to Pay is found in the Income Tax Act, including section 224, which sets out the mechanism and consequences for non-compliance.
In payroll operations, this is a communication-and-compliance issue: payroll must correctly interpret the notice, apply the withholding/remittance as directed, and communicate impacts to internal stakeholders (HR
/finance) and, where appropriate, the affected employee-while ensuring the remittance is made exactly as the CRA notice requires.
NEW QUESTION # 24
A Third Party Demand is issued by the Canada Revenue Agency for:
Answer: D
Explanation:
A "Third Party Demand" in payroll collections commonly refers to the CRA's Demand on a Third Party (DTP)-a legal garnishment tool used to collect a person's debt to the government by requiring a third party (such as an employer or financial institution) to redirect funds that would otherwise be paid to the debtor.
CRA guidance explains that garnishments may be issued as a Requirement to Pay (RTP), Enhanced Requirement to Pay (ERTP), or Demand on a Third Party (DTP), and that these documents apply when money normally payable to someone who owes a debt to the government must instead be paid to the CRA (or other listed federal bodies).
This aligns with option B: unpaid income tax or unpaid statutory deductions (such as payroll source deductions) can lead to CRA collection action using these legal instruments.
Child support is generally enforced under provincial/territorial family support programs, not via CRA DTP as described here. Overpaid EI benefits are typically handled through EI/Service Canada recovery processes, and
"third-party creditor debt" is not a CRA-administered debt.
NEW QUESTION # 25
Rosa joined Avion Electronics in April 1983. Her employment was terminated on November 30, 2015 and she was paid a $62,500.00 retiring allowance. Rosa joined her company's pension plan in 1986 and was fully vested on termination of employment. Calculate the non-eligible portion of the retiring allowance.
Answer:
Explanation:
$32,000.00 non-eligible portion
Explanation:
CRA requires separating a retiring allowance into an eligible and non-eligible portion. The eligible portion is the maximum that can be transferred to an RRSP/RPP under the special rules (without using regular RRSP room). The formula is: $2,000 for each year (or part-year) of service before 1996, plus an additional $1,500 for each year (or part-year) before 1989 in which the employee had no employer pension/DPSP benefit vested at the time of payment (or previously paid).
Rosa worked from 1983 to 1995 (inclusive) for pre-1996 service: 13 years ร $2,000 = $26,000.
For the extra pre-1989 amount: she joined the pension plan in 1986 and was fully vested when paid the retiring allowance in 2015, so 1986-1988 do not qualify for the extra $1,500. However, 1983-1985 were years before 1989 when she had no vested employer pension benefit, so 3 years ร $1,500 = $4,500.
Eligible portion = $26,000 + $4,500 = $30,500.
Non-eligible portion = $62,500 # $30,500 = $32,000.
NEW QUESTION # 26
Raminder was hired in January 1997. He was fully vested in the organization's pension plan at the time he received the retiring allowance. His employment was terminated on May 1, 2006 and he was paid a
$10,000.00 retiring allowance. Calculate the eligible portion of the retiring allowance.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The "eligible portion" of a retiring allowance (the part that may be transferred directly to an RRSP/RPP on a tax-deferred basis without using regular RRSP room) is based on years of service before 1996 (and potentially an additional amount for certain pre-1989 years). CRA explains that the eligible part is: $2,000 for each year or part-year of service before 1996, plus an additional $1,500 for each year or part-year of service before 1989 only if no employer-funded pension/DPSP benefits for those years were vested (or previously paid out).
Raminder was hired in January 1997, so he has zero years (or part-years) of service before 1996, and therefore he has no base eligible amount under the $2,000-per-year rule. Because he also has no pre-1989 service, the additional $1,500-per-year rule does not apply either.
So, the eligible portion is $0, meaning none of the $10,000 retiring allowance is eligible (option D).
NEW QUESTION # 27
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