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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Cardiology and Resuscitation | - Cardiac Emergencies
|
| Topic 2: Trauma | - Trauma Assessment and Care
|
| Topic 3: Medical, Obstetrics and Gynecology | - Medical Emergencies
|
| Topic 4: EMS Operations | - Operational Procedures
|
| Topic 5: Airway, Respiration and Ventilation | - Airway Management
|
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NEW QUESTION # 186
Dyspnea, hypoxia, rales, and hemoptysis in the presence of blunt chest trauma are indicative of
Answer: B
Explanation:
This cluster of findings points most strongly to pulmonary contusion , which is essentially a bruised lung after blunt chest trauma . When the lung tissue is injured, bleeding and swelling inside the lung interfere with gas exchange, so the patient can develop dyspnea , hypoxia , rales/crackles , and even hemoptysis .
Authoritative trauma references specifically describe pulmonary contusion after blunt chest trauma with hypoxemia as a key sign, and note that patients may present with dyspnea/cough , while severe cases can have rales and bloody sputum or hemoptysis . ( NCBI )
NEW QUESTION # 187
A 23-year-old female has a tear in her perineum following delivery. This is best treated by:
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. applying direct pressure.
A perineal tear after childbirth is a form of external soft-tissue bleeding. The primary prehospital treatment for any external bleeding, including obstetric perineal tears, is direct pressure with sterile dressings.
According to NREMT EMT-level obstetrics care guidelines, bleeding control in the postpartum patient should follow standard hemorrhage control principles, with emphasis on direct pressure as the first-line intervention.
Why D is correct:
* Direct pressure is the most effective and immediate method to control bleeding from a perineal tear.
* It helps reduce blood loss and prevents further complications such as shock.
Why the other options are incorrect:
* A. Packing her vagina with gauze # This is not appropriate in the prehospital setting and may cause further injury or infection.
* B. Elevating her pelvis # Not a recognized or effective method for controlling perineal bleeding.
* C. Having her keep her legs flexed # This does not control bleeding and has no role in treatment.
Exact Extracts:
* "Control external bleeding with direct pressure using sterile dressings."
* "Postpartum bleeding should be managed with standard hemorrhage control techniques."
* "Direct pressure is the first step in controlling soft-tissue hemorrhage." References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - Obstetrics and Gynecology
National EMS Education Standards - Childbirth and Postpartum Care
NREMT Candidate Handbook - Patient Management (Bleeding Control)
NEW QUESTION # 188
A patient has heart failure with pulmonary edema. They have shortness of breath, and crackles are present in both lungs. The patient is nauseated and has vomited once. The vital signs are BP 90/40, P 110, R 10, and SpO# 89% on room air. Which of the following signs or symptoms prevent the EMT from using CPAP?
Select the three correct options.
Answer: A,B,F
Explanation:
Contraindications to CPAP (Continuous Positive Airway Pressure) include:
* Hypotension: CPAP can reduce preload and worsen shock (BP < 90 systolic is a contraindication)
* Respiratory rate too low: A rate of 10 is at the low threshold; CPAP requires spontaneous adequate effort
* Active vomiting or nausea: CPAP increases aspiration risk
Crackles and hypoxia are indications, not contraindications, for CPAP. Pulse rate does not influence CPAP use directly.
References:
NREMT Airway Management and Cardiovascular Guidelines
National EMS Education Standards - Respiratory Failure and CPAP
AHA ACLS Provider Manual - Heart Failure and Pulmonary Edema Management
NEW QUESTION # 189
A 12-year-old male suffered helmet-to-helmet contact while playing football. A bystander states, "He passed out for several seconds, then walked off the field under his own power." He is now unresponsive, and his vital signs are BP 180/110, P 90, and R 6. You should suspect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Anepidural hematomaclassically presents with a"lucid interval"- a brief period of regained consciousness following head trauma, followed by rapid deterioration. This is due to arterial bleeding, often from themiddle meningeal artery, leading to increasing intracranial pressure.
Signs include:
* High blood pressure
* Decreasing respiratory rate
* Altered LOC or unresponsiveness
Subdural hemorrhages are slower venous bleeds, common in elderly patients. Subarachnoid hemorrhage often presents with "worst headache of life." Intracerebral bleeds are less commonly linked to lucid intervals.
References:
NREMT Trauma Module - Head Injuries
AAOS Emergency Care Textbook (11th ed.), Chapter: Head and Spine Trauma Emergency Neurological Life Support (ENLS) Guidelines - Traumatic Brain Injury
NEW QUESTION # 190
Defusing sessions should do which of the following in order to be successful? Select the two answer options that are correct.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
A defusing session is meant to be an early, immediate support intervention , not something delayed for days. In critical incident stress management resources, defusing is described as occurring the same day or within about 24 hours after the event to provide immediate support, while later, more formal debriefings are typically done afterward. ( Shared Health - Health Providers ) It also works best when responders are given a chance to talk openly and share information voluntarily in a supportive setting. The goal is discussion, normalization, and support, not forcing people to speak or turning the session into a rigid interrogation. SAMHSA describes CISM as using supportive interventions after stressful incidents, and forcing participation is not part of that model. ( SAMHSA )
NEW QUESTION # 191
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