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CompTIA SY0-701 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations: In this topic, you'll find discussions comparing threat actors and motivations, explaining common threat vectors and attack surfaces, and outlining different types of vulnerabilities. Moreover, the topic focuses on analyzing indicators of malicious activity in scenarios and exploring mitigation techniques used to secure enterprises against threats.
Topic 2
  • Security Architecture: Here, you'll learn about security implications across different architecture models, applying security principles to secure enterprise infrastructure in scenarios, and comparing data protection concepts and strategies. The topic also delves into the importance of resilience and recovery in security architecture.
Topic 3
  • Security Operations: This topic delves into applying common security techniques to computing resources, addressing security implications of proper hardware, software, and data asset management, managing vulnerabilities effectively, and explaining security alerting and monitoring concepts. It also discusses enhancing enterprise capabilities for security, implementing identity and access management, and utilizing automation and orchestration for secure operations.
Topic 4
  • Security Program Management and Oversight: Finally, this topic discusses elements of effective security governance, the risk management process, third-party risk assessment, and management processes. Additionally, the topic focuses on security compliance requirements, types and purposes of audits and assessments, and implementing security awareness practices in various scenarios.
Topic 5
  • General Security Concepts: This topic covers various types of security controls, fundamental security concepts, the importance of change management processes in security, and the significance of using suitable cryptographic solutions.

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CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q732-Q737):

NEW QUESTION # 732
Which of the following should be deployed on an externally facing web server in order to establish an encrypted connection?

Answer: C

Explanation:
To establish an encrypted connection (such as HTTPS/TLS) with an externally facing web server, the server must deploy a public key as part of its digital certificate. Clients use the server's public key to initiate secure communication, which is validated by certificate authorities. The server holds the matching private key, but it is the public key that must be made available for encrypted connections to be established.
Reference:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Official Study Guide, Domain 1.3: "A public key is made available to anyone and is used to establish secure connections with a web server." Exam Objectives 1.3: "Explain the importance of cryptographic concepts."


NEW QUESTION # 733
A company wants to verify that the software the company is deploying came from the vendor the company purchased the software from. Which of the following is the best way for the company to confirm this information?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Validating the code signature is the best way to verify software authenticity, as it ensures that the software has not been tampered with and that it comes from a verified source. Code signatures are digital signatures applied by the software vendor, and validating them confirms the software's integrity and origin.


NEW QUESTION # 734
An administrator is reviewing a single server's security logs and discovers the following; Which of the following best describes the action captured in this log file?

Answer: D

Explanation:
A brute-force attack is a type of attack that involves systematically trying all possible combinations of passwords or keys until the correct one is found. The log file shows multiple failed login attempts in a short amount of time, which is a characteristic of a brute-force attack. The attacker is trying to guess the password of the Administrator account on the server. The log file also shows the event ID 4625, which indicates a failed logon attempt, and the status code 0xC000006A, which means the user name is correct but the password is wrong. These are indicators of compromise (IoC) that suggest a brute-force attack is taking place. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 215-216 and 223 1


NEW QUESTION # 735
An organization wants to ensure the integrity of compiled binaries in the production environment.
Which of the following security measures would best support this objective?

Answer: D

Explanation:
To ensure the integrity of compiled binaries in the production environment, the best security measure is code signing. Code signing uses digital signatures to verify the authenticity and integrity of the software, ensuring that the code has not been tampered with or altered after it was signed.
Code signing: Involves signing code with a digital signature to verify its authenticity and integrity, ensuring the compiled binaries have not been altered.
Input validation: Ensures that only properly formatted data enters an application but does not verify the integrity of compiled binaries.
SQL injection: A type of attack, not a security measure.
Static analysis: Analyzes code for vulnerabilities and errors but does not ensure the integrity of compiled binaries in production.


NEW QUESTION # 736
A company is in the process of cutting jobs to manage costs. The Chief Information Security Officer is concerned about the increased risk of an insider threat. Which of the following will most likely help the security awareness team address this potential threat?

Answer: D

Explanation:
The correct answer is Train supervisors to identify and manage disgruntled employees because insider threat risk is strongly tied to human behavior, morale, and organizational change. In the Security+ SY0-701 framework, insider threats are not limited to technical weaknesses but are often driven by emotional, financial, or workplace stressors-such as layoffs, demotions, or job uncertainty. During workforce reductions, employees may experience resentment or fear, increasing the likelihood of malicious or negligent actions.
Security awareness programs are designed to address human-centric risks through education, observation, and early intervention. Training supervisors equips them to recognize warning signs of insider threat behavior, including sudden disengagement, policy violations, excessive access requests, or hostile workplace conduct. The SY0-701 study guide emphasizes that managers and supervisors are in the best position to observe behavioral changes and escalate concerns before they turn into security incidents.
Option A is incorrect because disabling accounts before termination can disrupt operations, violate HR procedures, and raise legal or ethical concerns. Option C, configuring DLP to monitor staff targeted for termination, may be inappropriate, legally risky, and reactive rather than preventive. Option D focuses on external threats like phishing and manipulation, not internal risks tied to layoffs.
By training supervisors, the organization strengthens administrative and operational controls that align with security governance and personnel risk management objectives in SY0-701. This proactive approach supports collaboration between HR, management, and security teams, ensuring insider threats are identified early and handled appropriately.
In summary, insider threat mitigation during layoffs is most effective when focused on people and processes. Training supervisors helps detect risk indicators early, supports employee well-being, and reduces the likelihood of intentional or accidental security incidents during periods of organizational stress.


NEW QUESTION # 737
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