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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Governance, Risk, and Compliance | 20% | - Security policies, standards, and procedures
|
| Security Operations | 22% | - Operational security and resilience
|
| Security Engineering | 31% | - Cryptography and secure protocols
|
| Security Architecture | 27% | - Cloud and hybrid security architecture
|
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NEW QUESTION # 566
A company recentlyexperienced aransomware attack. Although the company performssystems and data backupon a schedule that aligns with itsRPO (Recovery Point Objective) requirements, thebackup administratorcould not recovercritical systems and datafrom its offline backups to meet the RPO. Eventually, the systems and data were restored with information that wassix months outside of RPO requirements.
Which of the following actions should the company take to reduce the risk of a similar attack?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Understanding the Ransomware Issue:
The key issue here is thatbackups were not recoverable within the required RPO timeframe.
This means the organizationdid not properly testitsbackup and disaster recovery (DR) processes.
To prevent this from happening again, regular disaster recovery testing is essential.
Why Option C is Correct:
Disaster recovery testing ensures that backups are functionaland can meetbusiness continuity needs.
Frequent DR testingallows organizations to identify and fixgaps in recovery strategies.
Regular testing ensuresthat recoverymeets the RPO & RTO (Recovery Time Objective) requirements.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A (Encrypt & label backup tapes):While encryption is important, it does not address thefailure to meet RPO requirements.
B (Reverting to manual business processes):While amanual continuity planis good for resilience, it doesnot resolve the backup and recovery failure.
D (Tabletop exercise & RACI matrix):Atabletop exerciseis a planning activity, butit does not involve actual recovery testing.
Reference:
CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Official Study Guide:Disaster Recovery & Business Continuity Planning NIST SP 800-34:Contingency Planning Guide for Information Systems ISO 22301:Business Continuity Management Standards
NEW QUESTION # 567
A company's security policy states that any publicly available server must be patched within 12 hours after a patch is released A recent llS zero-day vulnerability was discovered that affects all versions of the Windows Server OS:
Which of the following hosts should a security analyst patch first once a patch is available?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Based on the security policy that any publicly available server must be patched within 12 hours after a patch is released, the security analyst should patch Host 1 first. Here's why:
Public Availability: Host 1 is externally available, making it accessible from the internet. Publicly available servers are at higher risk of being targeted by attackers, especially when a zero-day vulnerability is known.
Exposure to Threats: Host 1 has IIS installed and is publicly accessible, increasing its exposure to potential exploitation. Patching this host first reduces the risk of a successful attack.
Prioritization of Critical Assets: According to best practices, assets that are exposed to higher risks should be prioritized for patching to mitigate potential threats promptly.
Reference:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
NIST Special Publication 800-40: Guide to Enterprise Patch Management Technologies CIS Controls: Control 3 - Continuous Vulnerability Management
NEW QUESTION # 568
A security administrator needs to develop a remediation plan to address a large number of vulnerability scan results. Which of the following should the administrator use to determine the vulnerabilities that should be addressed first?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) provides a standardized severity score for each vulnerability, reflecting its potential impact and exploitability. By sorting your scan results by CVSS score, focusing first on the highest-severity (e.g., critical and high) issues, you ensure your remediation plan targets the most dangerous vulnerabilities before lower-risk ones.
NEW QUESTION # 569
A security analyst needs to ensure email domains that send phishing attempts without previous communications are not delivered to mailboxes The following email headers are being reviewed
Which of thefollowing is the best action for the security analyst to take?
Answer: D
Explanation:
In reviewing email headers and determining actions to mitigate phishing attempts, the security analyst should focus on patterns of suspicious behavior and the reputation of the sending domains. Here's the analysis of the options provided:
A . Block messages from hr-saas.com because it is not a recognized domain: Blocking a domain solely because it is not recognized can lead to legitimate emails being missed. Recognition alone should not be the criterion for blocking.
B . Reroute all messages with unusual security warning notices to the IT administrator: While rerouting suspicious messages can be a good practice, it is not specific to the domain sending repeated suspicious messages.
C . Quarantine all messages with sales-mail.com in the email header: Quarantining messages based on the presence of a specific domain in the email header can be too broad and may capture legitimate emails.
D . Block vendor com for repeated attempts to send suspicious messages: This option is the most appropriate because it targets a domain that has shown a pattern of sending suspicious messages. Blocking a domain that repeatedly sends phishing attempts without previous communications helps in preventing future attempts from the same source and aligns with the goal of mitigating phishing risks.
Reference:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Details best practices for handling phishing attempts, including blocking domains with repeated suspicious activity.
NIST Special Publication 800-45 Version 2, "Guidelines on Electronic Mail Security": Provides guidelines on email security, including the management of suspicious email domains.
"Phishing and Countermeasures: Understanding the Increasing Problem of Electronic Identity Theft" by Markus Jakobsson and Steven Myers: Discusses effective measures to counter phishing attempts, including blocking persistent offenders.
By blocking the domain that has consistently attempted to send suspicious messages, the security analyst can effectively reduce the risk of phishing attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 570
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) reviews some reports indicating that the length of time to patch endpoints with vulnerabilities has been steadily increasing. Many endpoints are missing security agents, and the number of unapproved BYOD endpoints has increased. Which of the following would be best to address the CISO's security concerns?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The CISO's concerns are not only about patch latency; they also include missing security agents and a rise in unapproved BYOD endpoints. Conditional Access tied to device identity, compliance posture, and certificates can block or limit access from unmanaged or noncompliant devices. That directly addresses all three concerns at once: only compliant devices with required controls can access enterprise resources, which pressures patching hygiene, ensures agent presence, and reduces unauthorized BYOD access. CompTIA's SecurityX objectives include IAM controls and enterprise enforcement of access decisions based on trust and security posture.
NEW QUESTION # 571
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There is no doubt that we all dream of working for top companies around the globe. Some people make it through but some keep on thinking about how to break that glass. If you are among those who belong to the latter category, you should start the preparations for the CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam (CAS-005) certification exam to improve your knowledge, expertise and crack even the toughest interview easily.
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