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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Dimensions of Care | 50% | - Acute Care - Chronic Care - Assessment and Diagnosis - Health Promotion and Illness Prevention |
| Topic 2: Physician Activities | 50% | - Psychosocial Aspects - Management - Professional Behaviours - Communication |
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NEW QUESTION # 155
A 62-year-old man, who has not seen a physician in 20 years, presents to your clinic with a burning sensation in his feet. The symptoms have been progressing slowly over the last 6 months. There is no associated motor weakness or skin changes. He reports no significant past medical history and takes no medications. His alcohol intake is minimal. On examination, he has reduced pinprick/vibration sensation and proprioception in the ankles with absent ankle reflexes. Which one of the following blood tests would you expect to be abnormal?
Answer: E
Explanation:
This is a classic presentation of diabetic peripheral neuropathy: bilateral distal sensory symptoms with preserved motor function and no other systemic findings. The most useful test to confirm this in a previously undiagnosed patient is HbA1c.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, Diabetes Complications:
"Peripheral neuropathy is a common complication of undiagnosed or poorly controlled diabetes. Confirm with HbA1c if diagnosis is not yet established." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Endocrinology:
"Candidates should evaluate for diabetes in patients with peripheral neuropathy and screen appropriately with HbA1c." Folate (B) and B12 deficiency may also cause neuropathy but are less likely in the absence of nutritional risk factors. Other choices (A, D, E) are unrelated to this pattern.
NEW QUESTION # 156
A 59-year-old woman is referred to you because of a 2-month history of left nipple discharge. She is otherwise healthy and is not on any medication. There are no palpable lesions on breast examination. She is able to express a small amount of blood-tinged liquid from her breast. Which one of the following would be the best next step?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Spontaneous, unilateral, blood-tinged nipple discharge in a postmenopausal woman is considered pathologic and warrants imaging to rule out intraductal pathology including malignancy. The best initial test is diagnostic mammography, often with ultrasound if indicated.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Breast Disorders:
"Unilateral, spontaneous, bloody nipple discharge should be evaluated with mammography and targeted ultrasound. Further tests such as MRI or duct excision are based on findings." MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 81-1: Breast Conditions):
"Candidates must recognize red flags for breast malignancy and apply appropriate initial diagnostic imaging." Serum prolactin (C) is indicated in galactorrhea. Galactography (D) and MRI (E) are second-line. Biopsy (A) is premature without imaging.
NEW QUESTION # 157
You are asked to assess an 85-year-old man who was admitted to the hospital for management of a bowel obstruction. The patient is in bed and has a faint pulse with no detectable blood pressure. There is vomitus on his bed and clothing. He has central cyanosis, and oxygen saturation is 75% on supplemental oxygen. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: E
Explanation:
This patient is critically unstable with severe hypoxia (SpO# 75% despite oxygen), central cyanosis, hypotension (no detectable blood pressure), and evidence of active vomiting-placing him at extremely high risk of airway compromise and aspiration . According to MCCQE resuscitation objectives and ABC principles, airway management is the immediate priority in a patient with respiratory failure and compromised airway protection.
Endotracheal intubation provides definitive airway control, allows suctioning of vomitus, prevents further aspiration, and enables mechanical ventilation with high-concentration oxygen. Noninvasive ventilation is contraindicated in patients with vomiting and impaired airway protection due to high aspiration risk. Chest compressions are indicated only if there is no pulse; this patient has a faint pulse. Intravenous fluids are important for hypotension but must follow airway stabilization. Nasogastric tube insertion does not address the immediate life-threatening hypoxia.
Early definitive airway control in unstable patients with hypoxemia and aspiration risk is essential to prevent cardiac arrest and improve survival outcomes.
NEW QUESTION # 158
An 84-year-old woman is brought by ambulance to the emergency department after she was found by a neighbour. She had fallen, sustained a hip fracture, and was unable to move for the past 2 days. After starting rehydration, she reports hip pain and numbness and tingling in both her legs. Physical examination reveals faint pulses in both legs and severely swollen lower legs that are painful to palpation. The urine in the Foley catheter bag seems to be darker than normal. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: D
Explanation:
This patient presents with signs of acute compartment syndrome (pain out of proportion, paresthesia, pallor, swelling, decreased pulses, and dark urine indicating rhabdomyolysis). Measuring compartment pressures is the diagnostic test of choice to confirm the diagnosis and guide urgent surgical fasciotomy.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Orthopedics:
"Acute compartment syndrome should be suspected in any patient with severe extremity pain, swelling, sensory deficits, and tense compartments. Confirm with compartment pressure measurements. Fasciotomy is indicated if pressure is >30 mmHg or within 30 mmHg of diastolic pressure." MCCQE1 Objectives (Surgery > 51-2: Limb Trauma):
"Candidates must diagnose acute compartment syndrome and initiate appropriate surgical referral after confirming with pressure measurements." Angiography and Doppler studies assess vascular compromise but are not the first step in suspected compartment syndrome. Fixing the hip (C) and testing myoglobin (E) are not diagnostic steps.
NEW QUESTION # 159
A 27-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, aborta 0, presents to the office seeking guidance on the management of her baby once it is born. The patient is in renal failure and has been taking methadone for 3 years to manage her opioid use disorder. During her pregnancy, she has been taking a stable dose of 80 mg of methadone once daily. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Methadone maintenance therapy during pregnancy is the recommended treatment for opioid use disorder and should be continued at a stable dose. However, regardless of maternal dose stability, neonates are at significant risk of neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS) due to in utero opioid exposure. MCCQE objectives emphasize anticipatory guidance and appropriate newborn monitoring in substance-exposed pregnancies.
Symptoms of NAS (irritability, tremors, poor feeding, vomiting, diarrhea, seizures) typically begin within 24-
72 hours after birth but may be delayed with long-acting opioids such as methadone. Therefore, routine observation in hospital for at least 72 hours is recommended to monitor for withdrawal and initiate supportive or pharmacologic treatment if needed.
Naloxone is contraindicated in opioid-dependent neonates except in life-threatening respiratory depression because it may precipitate severe withdrawal. Stable maternal dosing does not eliminate NAS risk, so early discharge is inappropriate. Breastfeeding is generally encouraged in stable methadone-maintained mothers, as methadone transfer in breast milk is minimal and may reduce withdrawal severity. Continuing methadone during pregnancy is safer than untreated opioid use.
NEW QUESTION # 160
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