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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|
| Topic 1: Incident Response Management | 20% | - Forensics and analysis
- 1. Evidence collection
- 2. Log analysis
- Incident handling lifecycle
- 1. Detection and containment
- 2. Eradication and recovery
|
| Topic 2: Vulnerability Management | 30% | - Remediation and mitigation
- 1. Patch management
- 2. Risk prioritization
- Vulnerability identification
- 1. Scanning tools and techniques
- 2. Asset discovery
|
| Topic 3: Reporting and Communication | 17% | - Stakeholder communication
- 1. Escalation procedures
- 2. Technical vs non-technical reporting
- Security reporting
- 1. Incident documentation
- 2. Metrics and dashboards
|
| Topic 4: Security Operations and Monitoring | 33% | - Threat intelligence usage
- 1. Threat actor profiling
- 2. IOC interpretation and correlation
- Analyze indicators of malicious activity
- 1. Network traffic analysis
- 2. Endpoint logs and alerts
|
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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q222-Q227):
NEW QUESTION # 222
A bad actor bypasses authentication and reveals all records in a database through an SQL injection. Implementation of which of the following would work BEST to prevent similar attacks in
- A. Content filtering
- B. Strict input validation
- C. SQL patching
- D. Output encoding
- E. Blacklisting
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 223
A security analyst is investigate an no client related to an alert from the threat detection platform on a host (10.0 1.25) in a staging environment that could be running a cryptomining tool because it in sending traffic to an IP address that are related to Bitcoin.
The network rules for the instance are the following:

Which of the following is the BEST way to isolate and triage the host?
- A. Remove rules 4 and 5
- B. Remove rules 1.2. and 5.
- C. Remove rules 1.4. and 5.
- D. Remove rules 1.2. 3.4. and 5.
- E. Remove rules 1.2. and 3.
- F. Remove rules 1.2. 4. and 5.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The best way to isolate and triage the host is to remove rules 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5. These rules allow inbound and outbound traffic on ports 22 (SSH), 80 (HTTP), and 443 (HTTPS) from any source or destination. By removing these rules, the security analyst can block any network communication to or from the host, preventing any further data exfiltration or malware infection. This will also allow the security analyst to perform a forensic analysis on the host without any interference from external sources.
NEW QUESTION # 224
A security architect is reviewing the options for performing input validation on incoming web form submissions. Which of the following should the architect as the MOST secure and manageable option?
- A. Server-side blacklisting
- B. Server-side whitelisting
- C. Client-side whitelisting
- D. Client-side blacklisting
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 225
An analyst has initiated an assessment of an organization's security posture.
As a part of this review, the analyst would like to determine how much information about the organization is exposed externally.
Which of the following techniques would BEST help the analyst accomplish this goal? (Select two.)
- A. Sourcing social network sites
- B. Banner grabbing
- C. Fingerprinting
- D. Technical control audits
- E. Intranet portal reviews
- F. Internet searches
- G. DNS query log reviews
Answer: A,C
NEW QUESTION # 226
A security manager has asked an analyst to provide feedback on the results of a penetration test. After reviewing the results, the manager requests information regarding the possible exploitation of vulnerabilities. Which of the following information data points would be MOST useful for the analyst to provide to the security manager, who would then communicate the risk factors to the senior management team? (Select TWO).
- A. Classification
- B. Adversary capability
- C. Attack vector
- D. Impact
- E. Probability
- F. Indicators of compromise
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
According to the CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) best practices, the most useful information data points to provide to the security manager for communicating the risk factors to senior management are the impact and adversary capability. The impact refers to the potential consequences of a successful attack or exploitation of a vulnerability, such as data loss or system compromise. The adversary capability refers to the ability of an attacker to exploit a vulnerability, including their technical expertise and resources. Together, these data points help to provide a complete picture of the risk associated with a vulnerability, and allow senior management to make informed decisions regarding risk mitigation and remediation. The other data points, such as probability, attack vector, classification, and indicators of compromise, can also be valuable, but the impact and adversary capability are considered the most critical for prioritizing risk mitigation efforts.
NEW QUESTION # 227
......
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