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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Dimensions of Care | - Psychosocial Aspects
|
| Physician Activities | - Management
|
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NEW QUESTION # 271
A 58-year-old woman presents with a 1-year history of functional decline. She reports seeing rodents and little children invading her bedroom. Her partner tells you she has a slow, unsteady gait and tends to fall. On examination, she cannot sustain her attention during cognitive testing. Which one of the following is most likely to be found on brain imaging?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The symptoms - visual hallucinations, attention deficits, gait instability - suggest dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB), which may show bilateral frontal or parietal atrophy on imaging.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, Neurocognitive Disorders:
"DLB presents with fluctuating cognition, visual hallucinations, parkinsonism, and attention deficits. Imaging may show frontal or parietal atrophy but is not always specific." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > Neurocognitive Disorders:
"Candidates must recognize the characteristic features of DLB and support diagnosis with imaging when appropriate." Cerebellar atrophy (A) is linked to ataxia but not hallucinations. Subdural hematoma (B) causes abrupt decline. Mediotemporal atrophy (D) is typical of Alzheimer's. Option E is incorrect - imaging can support the diagnosis.
NEW QUESTION # 272
A 55-year-old man with alcohol use disorder presents with a 2-day history of confusion. Onexamination, you note a sixth nerve palsy and a horizontal nystagmus. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: E
Explanation:
Wernicke encephalopathy is a medical emergency caused by thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency, most often seen in chronic alcohol use. The classic triad is:
* Confusion
* Oculomotor dysfunction (e.g., nystagmus, cranial nerve palsies)
* Ataxia
Toronto Notes 2023 - Neurology and Psychiatry, "Wernicke Encephalopathy" Section:
"Wernicke encephalopathy is diagnosed clinically. Symptoms include ophthalmoplegia (e.g., CN VI palsy), horizontal nystagmus, ataxia, and confusion. Immediate parenteral thiamine is indicated before glucose administration." MCCQE1 Objectives (Neurology > 75-1: Neurologic Emergencies):
"Candidates must recognize Wernicke encephalopathy in at-risk individuals and initiate urgent thiamine replacement." Other choices like cerebellar degeneration (A) and hepatic encephalopathy (D) are more chronic and lack the characteristic eye findings. Subdural hematoma (B) and hemorrhage (E) may mimic confusion but are less likely with these neurologic signs and history.
NEW QUESTION # 273
A 24-year-old man presents to your clinic with a 6-month history of fatigue. On examination, he is pale. His BMI is 16, and his blood pressure is 92/58 mm Hg. Initial laboratory work shows the following:
* Creatinine: 64 µmol/L (49-93)
* Potassium: 3.0 mmol/L (3.5-5.1)
* Sodium: 138 mmol/L (136-146)
* TSH: 2.40 mIU/L (0.34-5.60)
* CBC: Normal
Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: A
Explanation:
This patient has clinical signs of an eating disorder - fatigue, low BMI, hypotension, and hypokalemia - likely secondary to nutritional deficiencies or purging. The first step is to sensitively explore the patient's perception of weight and body image. Effective management requires rapport and careful conversation.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, Eating Disorders:
"Approach patients with suspected eating disorders non-judgmentally. Begin with permission to discuss weight or body image. Screening tools like SCOFF can help guide further assessment." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > Eating Disorders:
"Candidates must recognize signs of eating disorders and initiate a respectful and effective patient-centered discussion." Referring to the ED (B) is not urgent without hemodynamic instability. Advising caloric intake (C) bypasses assessment. GI referral (D) is not appropriate at this stage.
NEW QUESTION # 274
A 31-year-old man presents to the office with concerns about his heart. Three months ago, his father died of a myocardial infarction at age 58 years. He states that since the death of his father, he has experienced episodes in which his heart will start racing, causing him to feel short of breath, dizzy, and nauseous. He is afraid that he will die during these episodes. Findings from a physical examination, electrocardiogram, Holter monitoring, echocardiogram, and complete blood count are normal. Serum electrolyte level, troponin level, and thyroid function studies are all within normal limits. Which one of the following options is the most appropriate?
Answer: D
Explanation:
This patient presents with panic-like somatic symptoms triggered by bereavement. Normal investigations rule out cardiac pathology. Grief therapy is appropriate as the underlying stressor is unresolved grief and anxiety.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, Grief and Anxiety Disorders:
"Bereavement-related anxiety and somatization are common. Grief counseling can help reduce somatic and psychological symptoms when medical causes are ruled out." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > Anxiety and Bereavement:
"Candidates should recognize psychological sequelae of grief, including panic and health anxiety, and provide appropriate psychological support." Metoprolol (C) is not indicated without confirmed cardiac cause. Lorazepam (B) may offer short-term relief but does not address the underlying grief. Stress testing (A) is unnecessary with repeated normal investigations.
NEW QUESTION # 275
A 67-year-old man presents to the clinic because of elevated liver enzymes. He is asymptomatic.His medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes, which is being treated with metformin. On physical examination, he looks well. His blood pressure is 125/75 mm Hg, his heart rate is 80/min, and his BMI is 35. Findings of the remainder of the examination are normal. His blood work results are as follows:
* Platelet count: 170 × 10#/L (130-380)
* Creatinine: normal
* GGT: 75 µmol/L (49-93)
* ALT: 146 IU/L (15-85)
* AST: 101 IU/L (17-63)
* Bilirubin (total): 17 µmol/L (3-17)
* INR: 1.2 (0.9-1.2)
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The patient is obese (BMI 35), has type 2 diabetes, and shows a hepatocellular pattern of transaminitis (elevated ALT > AST). These are typical features of nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), the inflammatory subtype of nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD).
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gastroenterology, NAFLD and NASH:
"NASH should be suspected in patients with metabolic syndrome, obesity, and type 2 diabetes, especially with elevated transaminases and normal bilirubin or INR." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Hepatology:
"Candidates should recognize the clinical profile of NAFLD/NASH, particularly in asymptomatic patients with metabolic risk factors and isolated liver enzyme elevations." Acute hepatitis B (A) typically has higher ALT and symptoms. Pancreatic carcinoma (B) affects biliary enzymes or bilirubin. Metformin (D) does not elevate liver enzymes. HCC (E) would often present with systemic or localized symptoms and abnormal imaging.
NEW QUESTION # 276
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