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CSI AFP-Exam-1 Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionWeightObjectives
Enabling Competencies16%- Professional Conduct and Regulatory Compliance
- Client Relationship and Practice Management
Technical Competencies84%- Estate Planning
- Retirement Planning
- Tax Planning
- Risk Management and Insurance
- Investment Planning
- Asset and Liability Management

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CSI Applied Financial Planning Certification Exam 1 (AFP) Sample Questions (Q17-Q22):

NEW QUESTION # 17
Edward's client is updating his will and is concerned what will happen to his and his wife's estates should they die within a short time of each other. Which clause in the will should Edward recommend the couple discuss with their lawyer?

Answer: A

Explanation:
A survivorship clause addresses the risk that spouses or beneficiaries die within a short period of each other.
The clause normally requires a beneficiary to survive the testator by a specified number of days before inheriting. Without such a clause, assets may pass through one estate and then almost immediately through another, increasing administration complexity, probate exposure, and possible distribution results that do not match the couple's intentions. A conversion clause is not the standard will clause for this issue. A life interest gives someone use or income from property for life, which is a different estate-planning tool. A successor designation may apply to certain registered or TFSA arrangements, but the will provision for near- simultaneous deaths is survivorship. Edward should advise the client to discuss survivorship wording with a lawyer because provincial legislation and drafting precision matter. Study Guide focus: wills, survivorship clauses, estate administration, simultaneous death planning, and beneficiary succession.


NEW QUESTION # 18
A retiree holds most of her investments in interest-bearing GICs inside a non-registered account while her TFSA is invested in cash. She has unused TFSA room and wants to improve after-tax efficiency without increasing total portfolio risk materially. What should the planner consider?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Interest income is fully taxable in a non-registered account, so sheltering interest-bearing assets in a TFSA can improve after-tax results without changing the underlying risk profile materially. If the retiree already wants conservative holdings, placing some GIC or high-interest savings exposure inside the TFSA may reduce annual taxable income and preserve capital. Option B changes the risk profile and is not responsive to the client's objective. Option C may be an estate or family-support decision, but it does not directly improve asset-location efficiency. Option D introduces leverage and repayment risk, which conflicts with the retiree's conservative profile. The planner should evaluate available TFSA room, maturity dates, liquidity needs, CDIC eligibility where relevant, estate beneficiary designations, and whether non-registered accrued interest will be triggered. The principle is asset location: tax-inefficient income is often better sheltered where possible, provided the recommendation remains suitable. References/topics: asset location, TFSA, interest income taxation, retirement portfolio efficiency.


NEW QUESTION # 19
A couple has stable employment, two dependants, and essential monthly expenses of $5,200. They have no emergency reserve. Which recommendation is most appropriate before increasing long-term investment contributions?

Answer: A

Explanation:
An emergency reserve is a liquidity tool, not a return-maximization strategy. With dependants and no cash buffer, the couple is exposed to job interruption, repairs, medical costs, insurance deductibles, and unexpected family expenses. A range of three to six months of essential expenses is a standard planning benchmark, adjusted for job stability, income variability, debt load, and family obligations. Option B substitutes high- interest borrowing for preparedness and can quickly damage cash flow. Option C is unsuitable for emergency money because equity markets may fall precisely when liquidity is needed. Option D is inefficient because RRSP withdrawals are taxable and permanently reduce tax-sheltered retirement capital. The planner should direct surplus cash first toward a high-interest savings account or similar liquid reserve, then revisit long-term contributions once the household can absorb short-term shocks. References/topics: emergency fund, liquidity management, cash flow resilience, asset and liability management. Liquidity is therefore treated as a prerequisite to aggressive investing.


NEW QUESTION # 20
Samantha is meeting with a financial planner for the first time, seeking help with both investing and debt management. She's finding it hard to get ahead because she recently graduated with student debt, started a new career in her field, and is adding credit card debt each month. What recommendation should the financial planner propose?

Answer: D

Explanation:
Samantha's immediate problem is monthly deterioration in cash flow. She has student debt, a new career, and growing credit card balances. Before recommending RRSP deductions, eliminating a credit card, or prioritizing one debt type, the planner needs a budget review that identifies income, fixed expenses, discretionary spending, debt payments, and available surplus. Removing the credit card may help behaviour, but it is a tactic that follows analysis. Automatic RRSP deductions are premature while she is adding high- interest debt each month. Student loan repayment may be important, but credit card debt usually carries a higher interest rate and the planner cannot rank obligations without cash-flow data. The budget is the diagnostic tool that allows Samantha to stop the monthly deficit, control discretionary expenses, and build a realistic debt-reduction strategy. Study Guide focus: budgeting, debt management, cash-flow deficits, financial planning process, and implementation priorities. Only after the budget is known can the planner choose between snowball, avalanche, consolidation, or savings strategies.


NEW QUESTION # 21
Jonah is meeting with his client, Muhsina, who owns Myke Inc., a Canadian-controlled private corporation.
Based on current market value, if he decides to sell Myke Inc., Muhsina will have a capital gain of $400.000.
He expects the value of Myke Inc. to increase in future years and has a CNIL balance of $100,000. He wants the future increase in value to be taxed in the hands of his children, Teshi and Kaliyah, and to minimize the cost. What action should Jonah advise Muhsina to take to meet his goal?

Answer: B

Explanation:
Muhsina should sell the shares at fair market value if the objective is to shift future growth to the children while avoiding a below-market transfer problem. A sale for $1 would not avoid tax; related-party tax rules generally deem a disposition at fair market value, and inadequate consideration can create double-tax or attribution complications. Selling at fair market value crystallizes the current value in Muhsina's hands and places future appreciation with Teshi and Kaliyah. The facts mention a current $400,000 capital gain and a CNIL balance, so the planner must coordinate LCGE eligibility and tax cost carefully. Joint accounts do not transfer private corporation growth in a controlled business succession structure and may create ownership and attribution problems. The ideal planning tool might be an estate freeze, but among the available options, a fair-market-value sale is the correct method. Study Guide focus: related-party transfers, fair market value, CNIL, LCGE, business succession, and estate-freeze concepts.


NEW QUESTION # 22
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