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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Physician Activities | - Assessment
|
| Dimensions of Care | - Health Promotion and Illness Prevention
|
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179. Frage
A 25-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 1, aborta 0, gave birth to a newborn who is hypotonic with a large protruding tongue and brachycephaly. The newborn has a single palmar crease bilaterally and short, broad hands with a curved fifth digit. These features best support a clinical diagnosis of which one of the following?
Antwort: D
Begründung:
This constellation of features-hypotonia, macroglossia, brachycephaly, single palmar crease, short broad hands with clinodactyly-is classic for Down syndrome (Trisomy 21).
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, "Genetic Syndromes":
"Trisomy 21 features include hypotonia, upslanting palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, flat nasal bridge, brachycephaly, macroglossia, single palmar crease, and clinodactyly." MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-3: Congenital and Genetic Disorders):
"Candidates must recognize key dysmorphic features associated with common genetic syndromes including Trisomy 21." Prader-Willi and congenital hypothyroidism may have hypotonia but lack the full phenotypic pattern. Turner syndrome is seen in females with short stature and webbed neck. Fetal alcohol syndrome presents with smooth philtrum and microcephaly.
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180. Frage
You are working in a busy family practice. Your colleague's 48-year-old female patient presents with a 6- month history of fatigue and gastrointestinal symptoms. A recent colonoscopy was normal. Her chart indicates multiple investigations for similar symptoms over the past 2 years, all of which have been non- revealing. Your working diagnosis is somatic symptom disorder. Which one of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Antwort: D
Begründung:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is the most effective first-line treatment for somatic symptom disorder. It helps patients reframe dysfunctional thoughts and improve coping strategies for perceived physical symptoms.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders":
"CBT is first-line for somatic symptom disorder. Antidepressants may be considered if comorbid depression or anxiety is present." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-2: Somatic Symptom Disorders):
"Candidates must manage somatic symptom disorder with appropriate psychosocial interventions." Citalopram (B) or amitriptyline (E) may be used adjunctively if mood symptoms are prominent. Risperidone (C) and ERP (D) are not indicated.
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181. Frage
A 40-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with confusion and fever (38.5°C). She has a history of hypothyroidism managed with levothyroxine. Key findings include:
Blood pressure
114/78 mm Hg
Heart rate
85/min
Temperature
38.5°C
Hemoglobin
90 g/L123-157 g/L
Platelet count
25 × 10#/L130-400 × 10#/L
Peripheral blood film
Schistocytes present
Creatinine
200 #mol/L50-90 #mol/L
Antwort: C
Begründung:
This patient presents with fever, confusion, anemia with schistocytes, thrombocytopenia, and renal impairment - fulfilling the classic pentad of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). TTP is a hematologic emergency requiring plasma exchange.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Hematology, "Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia" Section:
"TTP is a medical emergency. Features include MAHA, thrombocytopenia, renal failure, neurologic symptoms, and fever. Schistocytes on blood film are diagnostic." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-7: Hematologic Disorders):
"Candidates must urgently recognize TTP and initiate emergent plasma exchange therapy." AML (B) does not present with schistocytes. HIV (C) can cause thrombocytopenia but not MAHA. ITP (D) causes isolated thrombocytopenia without anemia or schistocytes.
182. Frage
A 34-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, comes to your office for prenatal care. Past medical history includes
2 precipitous uncomplicated term deliveries of infants greater than 4200 g. Which one of the following is she most at risk of developing?
Antwort: C
Begründung:
This patient's obstetric history suggests recurrent fetal macrosomia (birthweight > 4000-4500 g) and rapid (precipitous) labours. MCCQE objectives emphasize identifying maternal risk factors for postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) , particularly those associated with uterine atony , the most common cause of PPH.
Delivery of a macrosomic infant increases uterine overdistension, which reduces effective postpartum uterine contraction and predisposes to atony and hemorrhage. In addition, precipitous labour can be associated with genital tract trauma, which can also contribute to postpartum bleeding, but the strongest and most consistent risk factor in the options provided is PPH from atony related to prior large infants.
The other choices are less supported by the stem: prior macrosomic term deliveries do not inherently increase risk of preterm delivery, gestational hypertension, or DVT. Therefore, the most likely risk to anticipate and plan for is postpartum hemorrhage, prompting proactive intrapartum planning (active management of the third stage, readiness with uterotonics, and risk-based monitoring).
183. Frage
A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic for follow-up regarding her major depressive disorder, which is being treated with the starting dosage of escitalopram. Most of her symptoms have now improved. However, she has noted anorgasmia since taking this medication. This has significantly affected her relationship with her wife. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Antwort: B
Begründung:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Sexual dysfunction, including anorgasmia, is a common side effect of SSRIs like escitalopram. Bupropion, a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor, has minimal sexual side effects and can be safely added to mitigate this issue while preserving the antidepressant effect.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry / Pharmacology:
"SSRI-induced sexual dysfunction can be managed by dose reduction, switching agents, or adding bupropion." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-1: Depressive Disorders):
"Candidates should be able to address side effects of antidepressants, including sexual dysfunction, and adjust therapy appropriately." Increasing the dose (A) may worsen sexual dysfunction. Venlafaxine (B), an SNRI, also has sexual side effects. D (no change) does not address the patient's concern.
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184. Frage
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