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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Vulnerability Management | 26% | - Vulnerability Assessment
|
| Reporting and Communication | 16% | - Communication
|
| Incident Response and Management | 24% | - Incident Response Processes
|
| Security Operations | 34% | - Security Operations and Architecture
|
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NEW QUESTION # 170
An analyst is researching potential indicators of compromise (IoCs) on a server and receives the following output:
Which of following best describes the potential IoC?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The connection list shows established outbound connections to unusual or nonstandard ports such as 27656, 3256, 666, and 33000. Communication over unexpected or uncommon ports can indicate suspicious activity, such as malware or command-and-control traffic attempting to bypass normal monitoring and security controls. This pattern is commonly treated as an indicator of compromise involving activity on unexpected ports.
NEW QUESTION # 171
Due to some incidents involving non-authorized devices, a company wants to implement a solution that only allows access to its LAN and Wi-Fi if certain policies are matched. Which of the following is the best solution to implement?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Network Access Control (NAC) enforces security policies before allowing devices to connect to wired or wireless networks. It can verify device compliance, authentication status, and other security requirements, ensuring that only authorized and compliant devices are granted access to the LAN and Wi-Fi network.
NEW QUESTION # 172
Current playbooks for incident response mention resources that have been decommissioned.
Which of the following actions should an analyst take?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Playbooks are part of formal incident response procedures and must remain aligned with current policies, infrastructure, and available resources. When they reference decommissioned resources, the appropriate action is to coordinate with the responsible stakeholders to review and update the policy and procedures so the playbooks accurately reflect the current environment.
NEW QUESTION # 173
An analyst is configuring a security information and event management system to capture fileless malware execution events.
Which of the following log files requires additional configuration to accomplish this task?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Microsoft-Windows-PowerShell/Operational log is the appropriate source because PowerShell is commonly involved in script-based and memory-oriented attack activity, including techniques associated with fileless malware. The key requirement in the question is "requires additional configuration": advanced PowerShell telemetry such as Script Block Logging must be enabled to provide the detailed execution visibility required by a SIEM.
Microsoft documents that enabling Script Block Logging causes PowerShell to record processed commands, functions, scripts, and script blocks in the Microsoft-Windows-PowerShell/Operational channel. In Windows PowerShell, Script Block Logging generates Event ID 4104 , which contains script-block content and can provide valuable evidence when investigating malicious PowerShell execution. Microsoft also specifically identifies malicious PowerShell scripts as a post-exploitation technique associated with fileless attack activity.
The DPAPI operational log concerns cryptographic data-protection activity. UserPnp/DeviceInstall relates to device installation events, while TerminalServices-LocalSessionManager provides Remote Desktop and terminal-session telemetry. Those sources can be valuable during investigations but are not the primary log channel for capturing PowerShell-based fileless execution.
Study Guide Reference: Security Operations # Logging and Monitoring # Windows Event Logs # PowerShell Logging # Event ID 4104 # Script Block Logging # Fileless Malware Detection.
NEW QUESTION # 174
A security team deploys a new scanning solution that requires root, domain administrator, and local server administrator permissions on all systems.
Which of the following is the best way to help mitigate the risk for this level of access?
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Privileged Access Management (PAM) solution provides the strongest control for credentials with root, domain administrator, and local administrative authority. Vulnerability scanners frequently require elevated permissions for credentialed assessments, but permanently exposing those credentials to scanning infrastructure creates substantial risk. If compromised, the scanner could provide an attacker with privileged access across a large portion of the environment.
PAM systems can protect privileged credentials through centralized vaulting, controlled checkout, tokenized or brokered authentication, rotation, session restrictions, auditing, and time-limited privilege. This aligns with the principle of least privilege, under which entities should receive only the access necessary to perform assigned functions. NIST defines least privilege in precisely this manner and applies the principle to privileged accounts.
Single sign-on improves authentication convenience but does not adequately secure highly privileged scanning credentials. A simple one-time password adds authentication assurance but lacks the credential governance and lifecycle controls provided by PAM. Agentless scanning changes scanner architecture but does not solve the underlying privileged-access requirement.
The strongest design is therefore to place high-impact administrative credentials under dedicated privileged- access controls rather than treating them as ordinary service credentials.
Study Guide Reference: Vulnerability Management # Credentialed Scanning # Scanner Permissions # PAM
# Least Privilege # Credential Vaulting and Rotation.
NEW QUESTION # 175
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