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The CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam (SY0-701) certification is one of the hottest career advancement credentials in the modern CompTIA world. The CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam (SY0-701) certification can help you to demonstrate your expertise and knowledge level. With only one badge of CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam in SY0-701 Certification, successful candidates can advance their careers and increase their earning potential.

CompTIA SY0-701 Exam Overview:

Certification Vendor:CompTIA
Exam Name:CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam
Exam Number:SY0-701
Available Languages:Spanish, Japanese, English, Portuguese
Related Certifications:CompTIA CySA+
CompTIA CASP+
CompTIA A+
CompTIA Network+
Certificate Validity Period:3 years
Exam Price:$370 USD
Exam Format:Performance-based questions (PBQs), Multiple-choice (single and multiple response)
Passing Score:750 (scale of 100-900)
Real Exam Qty:Maximum 90
Exam Duration:90 minutes
Sample Questions:CompTIA SY0-701 Sample Questions
Exam Way:Pearson VUE testing centers (in-person)
Pre Condition:Recommended: CompTIA Network+ and 2 years of experience in IT administration with a security focus. Not required but highly recommended.
Official Syllabus URL:https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails

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CompTIA SY0-701 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Security Program Management and Oversight: Finally, this topic discusses elements of effective security governance, the risk management process, third-party risk assessment, and management processes. Additionally, the topic focuses on security compliance requirements, types and purposes of audits and assessments, and implementing security awareness practices in various scenarios.
Topic 2
  • Security Operations: This topic delves into applying common security techniques to computing resources, addressing security implications of proper hardware, software, and data asset management, managing vulnerabilities effectively, and explaining security alerting and monitoring concepts. It also discusses enhancing enterprise capabilities for security, implementing identity and access management, and utilizing automation and orchestration for secure operations.
Topic 3
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations: In this topic, you'll find discussions comparing threat actors and motivations, explaining common threat vectors and attack surfaces, and outlining different types of vulnerabilities. Moreover, the topic focuses on analyzing indicators of malicious activity in scenarios and exploring mitigation techniques used to secure enterprises against threats.
Topic 4
  • General Security Concepts: This topic covers various types of security controls, fundamental security concepts, the importance of change management processes in security, and the significance of using suitable cryptographic solutions.
Topic 5
  • Security Architecture: Here, you'll learn about security implications across different architecture models, applying security principles to secure enterprise infrastructure in scenarios, and comparing data protection concepts and strategies. The topic also delves into the importance of resilience and recovery in security architecture.

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q418-Q423):

NEW QUESTION # 418
One of a company's vendors sent an analyst a security bulletin that recommends a BIOS update.
Which of the following vulnerability types is being addressed by the patch?

Answer: D

Explanation:
Firmware is a type of software that is embedded in hardware devices, such as BIOS, routers, printers, or cameras. Firmware controls the basic functions and operations of the device, and can be updated or patched to fix bugs, improve performance, or enhance security. Firmware vulnerabilities are flaws or weaknesses in the firmware code that can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access, modify settings, or cause damage to the device or the network. A BIOS update is a patch that addresses a firmware vulnerability in the basic input/output system of a computer, which is responsible for booting the operating system and managing the communication between the hardware and the software. The other options are not types of vulnerabilities, but rather categories of software or technology.


NEW QUESTION # 419
Which of the following incident response activities ensures evidence is properly handied?

Answer: B

Explanation:
Chain of custody is the process of documenting and preserving the integrity of evidence collected during an incident response. It involves recording the details of each person who handled the evidence, the time and date of each transfer, and the location where the evidence was stored. Chain of custody ensures that the evidence is admissible in legal proceedings and can be traced back to its source. E-discovery, legal hold, and preservation are related concepts, but they do not ensure evidence is properly handled. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 487; NIST SP 800-61: 3.2. Evidence Gathering and Handling


NEW QUESTION # 420
A security team receives reports about high latency and complete network unavailability throughout most of the office building. Flow logs from the campus switches show high traffic on TCP 445. Which of the following is most likely the root cause of this incident?

Answer: A

Explanation:
TCP port 445 is commonly used for Microsoft SMB (Server Message Block) protocol, which is often targeted by worms like WannaCry and NotPetya to spread rapidly across a network. The symptoms described - high traffic on TCP 445, high latency, and network unavailability - suggest a self-replicating worm is propagating, overwhelming network resources and disrupting normal operations.


NEW QUESTION # 421
Which of the following explains how regular patching helps mitigate risks when securing an enterprise environment?

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is B because regular patching directly reduces security risk by remediating known vulnerabilities before attackers can exploit them. Within the Security+ SY0-701 objectives, patch management is a foundational component of vulnerability management and secure operations. Vendors routinely release patches to fix security flaws that have already been identified, documented, and, in many cases, actively targeted by threat actors.
Attackers frequently scan enterprise environments for systems that are missing patches related to publicly disclosed vulnerabilities. Once a vulnerability is known, exploit code often becomes widely available, dramatically increasing the likelihood of compromise. Regular patching shortens the "window of exposure," which is the time between vulnerability disclosure and remediation. By applying patches promptly, organizations significantly reduce the attack surface and limit opportunities for exploitation.
Option A is incorrect because while patches may incidentally improve stability or performance, that is not their primary security purpose. Option C is incorrect because patching does not replace other security controls; firewalls and intrusion detection systems remain essential for layered defense. Option D is also incorrect because antivirus tools serve a different role, such as detecting and responding to malware, and cannot be replaced by patching alone.
The SY0-701 study guide emphasizes that effective patch management requires structured processes, including testing, maintenance windows, rollback planning, and prioritization based on risk and asset criticality. Patching is classified as a preventive technical control, stopping attacks before they occur rather than reacting after compromise.
In summary, regular patching mitigates enterprise risk by proactively addressing known software vulnerabilities before they can be exploited. This makes it one of the most effective and widely emphasized security practices in the Security+ SY0-701 exam and in real-world security operations.


NEW QUESTION # 422
A new employee can select a particular make and model of an employee workstation from a preapproved list.
Which of the following is this an example of?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The described scenario is CYOD (Choose Your Own Device). In a CYOD model, employees may choose from a list of company-approved devices. These devices are vetted for compatibility, security, and organizational standards while still providing some flexibility to employees.
The SY0-701 exam differentiates CYOD from other mobile deployment models:
* COPE (D) - Company-Owned, Personally Enabled: devices are company-owned and fully managed, but employees can use them personally.
* MDM (A) - Mobile Device Management: a tool, not a deployment model, used for managing configurations and security on devices.
* PED (C) - Portable Electronic Device: a generic category, not a deployment strategy.
CYOD strikes a balance between employee preference and maintaining a secure, standardized environment. It reduces risk associated with BYOD while avoiding the rigidity of COPE. CYOD also supports consistent patching, support, and security enforcement because all devices meet the organization's baseline criteria.
This aligns with the Security Architecture section of SY0-701, where the exam stresses secure device deployment strategies and maintaining uniform controls over endpoint assets.


NEW QUESTION # 423
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