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ACDIS CCDS-O Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionObjectives
Quality Initiatives- Patient Safety
- HEDIS Measures
Disease Processes and Clinical Concepts- Common Disease Categories
  • 1. Neoplasms
  • 2. Respiratory System
  • 3. Circulatory System
  • 4. Endocrine, Nutritional, and Metabolic Diseases
- Anatomy and Physiology
  • 1. Pharmacology
  • 2. Pathophysiology
Clinical Documentation Integrity (CDI) Program Operations- Provider Engagement and Education
  • 1. Feedback Mechanisms
- Query Process
  • 1. Compliance and Best Practices
  • 2. Query Types
Healthcare Regulations and Reimbursement- Medicare OPPS Payment Logic
  • 1. Status Indicators
  • 2. APC Classification
- Risk Adjustment Models
  • 1. HCC (Hierarchical Condition Categories)
  • 2. RxHCC

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ACDIS Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient Sample Questions (Q39-Q44):

NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following BEST describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Stage 3 pressure ulcers are defined by full-thickness skin loss where the injury extends through the dermis and involves damage or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue. Clinically, the ulcer may present as a deep crater and can include undermining or tunneling, but the key boundary is that bone, tendon, and muscle are not exposed. That deeper involvement (exposed muscle/tendon/bone) is characteristic of Stage 4, making option C incorrect. Option D describes partial-thickness loss, which aligns with Stage 2 (epidermis/dermis involvement such as abrasion or blister). Option A reflects early skin changes that correspond more closely to Stage 1 (intact skin with non-blanchable erythema and possible localized edema/induration). In outpatient CDI chart review, accurately distinguishing Stage 3 from Stage 2 and Stage 4 is essential because staging drives severity capture, care planning (wound care interventions, debridement considerations), and quality reporting. Documentation should clearly support "full thickness," the tissue layers involved, and the absence of exposed bone/tendon/muscle.


NEW QUESTION # 40
Upon retrospective review of a patient visit 2 weeks prior, a CDI specialist notes physician documentation stating the following: "Sick Sinus Syndrome in 2016 s/p pacemaker placement. Latest EKG shows normal paced rhythm." There are no codes noted for Sick Sinus Syndrome or the pacemaker. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the CDI specialist?

Answer: C

Explanation:
In outpatient CDI, diagnoses reported for an encounter must be supported as current and clinically relevant to that visit (evaluated, monitored, assessed, treated, or otherwise affecting care). The note documents a history of sick sinus syndrome with pacemaker placement in 2016 and indicates the current rhythm is paced. The most clearly reportable, present condition is the presence of a cardiac pacemaker, which is a status that can affect clinical decision-making (e.g., interpretation of rhythm findings, medication choices, procedures, and future cardiac evaluation) and is appropriate to code when documented. However, the documentation does not show that sick sinus syndrome itself was actively assessed or managed during this visit; it is referenced as a past condition leading to the device. Because outpatient coding does not assume an active diagnosis solely from historical mention, the best action is to capture the pacemaker status code only. Retrospective amendment requests or rebilling steps are not the first-line CDI action when the documentation does not support active management of the underlying arrhythmia.


NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following is a strategy that is often used by ACOs to improve their performance in the Readmission Reduction program?

Answer: B

Explanation:
ACOs commonly focus on strengthening documentation and coding of clinically relevant chronic conditions because many quality and utilization comparisons-including readmission-related performance assessments-are influenced by patient complexity and risk adjustment. When chronic diseases and their specificity (e.g., stage, severity, manifestations) are under-documented, attributed patients can appear "healthier" on paper than they truly are, which can worsen an organization's apparent readmission performance when outcomes are compared to an expected benchmark. Provider education that reinforces documenting active conditions that are monitored, evaluated, assessed/addressed, or treated helps ensure an accurate picture of acuity and comorbidity burden. This improves the integrity of risk adjustment inputs and supports fairer benchmarking, while also strengthening medical necessity and continuity-of-care communication across settings. The other choices represent either noncompliant behavior (avoiding condition reporting), poor documentation practice (promoting unspecified codes), or operational maneuvering that may be perceived as gaming rather than a sustainable quality strategy. Therefore, educating providers to capture chronic conditions accurately is the best and most commonly used improvement approach.


NEW QUESTION # 42
Given the following CMS-HCC categories, which is the correct order (highest to lowest) in the hierarchy?

Answer: C

Explanation:
In the CMS-HCC model, certain disease groupings are arranged in hierarchies so that when multiple related conditions are reported for the same patient, only the most severe (highest-ranked) HCC in that hierarchy is counted for risk adjustment. This prevents "double counting" of clinically related conditions that represent the same underlying burden of illness. The cancer-related HCCs in the 35-38 range are an example of this hierarchical design: if a patient has diagnoses that map to more than one of these HCCs, the model retains the highest-ranked category and suppresses the lower ones. Therefore, the correct hierarchy order is from the most severe category (HCC 35) down sequentially through HCC 36, HCC 37, and HCC 38. From an outpatient CDI perspective, this reinforces why accuracy and specificity matter: documentation should clearly establish the most clinically severe, active, and treated condition so the correct (highest) HCC is captured, rather than relying on nonspecific or less severe descriptors that could under-represent patient complexity.


NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the following descriptors is classified as an uncertain diagnosis?

Answer: C

Explanation:
In outpatient CDI and coding guidance, an "uncertain diagnosis" is identified by wording that indicates the provider has not confirmed the condition (e.g., possible, probable, suspected, rule out, question of, concern for). These terms reflect diagnostic consideration rather than an established diagnosis. Option A uses the phrase "concern for," which is a classic uncertainty qualifier and signals the provider is considering streptococcal pneumonia but has not definitively diagnosed it. In contrast, options B and D describe active treatment "for streptococcal pneumonia," which implies the provider is managing the condition as a working diagnosis; however, in outpatient coding, treatment alone does not automatically make a diagnosis confirmed if the documentation still reflects uncertainty-CDI would look for explicit provider confirmation. Option C ("evidence of") generally suggests supportive findings and is commonly interpreted as stronger than "concern for," though CDI would still assess whether the provider has clearly stated a confirmed diagnosis in the assessment/plan. Therefore, the clearest uncertain descriptor is "concern for."


NEW QUESTION # 44
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