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The PMI CAPM Certification Exam contains 150 multiple-choice questions. 15 of these items are the pretest ones that will not affect one’s final score and are used in the test for research purposes. The unscored questions are placed throughout the exam content randomly. The students will have three hours to complete their test. The exam is currently available in numerous languages, including such options as Arabic, Brazilian, Simplified & Traditional Chinese, English, German, French, Portuguese, Hebrew, Italian, Japanese, Russian, Korea, Turkish, and Spanish. While registering for the test, the individuals will be able to choose the language in which they would prefer to sit for it. The exam can be taken either online or at the nearest authorized testing center. Regardless of the delivery method, the exam will cost $225 for the PMI members and $300 for the non-members.
NEW QUESTION # 455
An adaptive team is working on a mobile banking application. The team conducted their sprint demo, which included 12 stories that were completed. This was the last sprint before the product was to be launched in the beta phase. One of the attendees from marketing noticed that a requested enhancement to share on social media was still in the product backlog.
Why was the product still determined to be ready for delivery?
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to the Agile Practice Guide and the PMBOKGuide, adaptive (Agile) project management is driven by Value-Based Prioritization.
* Why Choice B is correct: In an adaptive environment, the Product Owner is responsible for maintaining and prioritizing the Product Backlog. Items are ranked based on their value to the customer, risk, and business necessity. A product is determined " ready for delivery " (especially for a beta launch) when the Minimum Viable Product (MVP) or the set of high-priority features defined for that release have been completed. The fact that a " social media share " enhancement remains in the backlog simply indicates it was deemed a lower priority compared to the 12 stories that were completed. The completion of high-value stories satisfies the " Definition of Ready " for a release, even if the backlog is not empty.
* Analysis of other options:
* A (The development team ran out of time...): While teams do run out of time, this is a reactive explanation. Agile teams pull work based on priority, so if it wasn ' t pulled, it wasn ' t high enough on the list, regardless of time.
* C (The sprint demo went smoothly...): A smooth demo confirms that the completed work is of high quality, but it does not explain why uncompleted work is missing or why the product is still ready for launch.
* D (The social media story is a marketing priority...): This is a contradictory statement. If it were a top priority, it would have been at the top of the backlog. Furthermore, Agile prioritizes business and customer value holistically, not just by department.
In Agile, we accept that we may never finish the entire backlog. We focus on delivering the " biggest bang for the buck " first. As long as the most critical features for the beta phase are " Done, " the product is ready for delivery.
NEW QUESTION # 456
Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives?
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to the PMBOKGuide, specifically within the Plan Risk Responses process, risk response strategies are categorized based on whether the risk is a threat (negative impact) or an opportunity (positive impact).
* Strategies for Threats (Negative Risks):
* Avoid: Changing the project management plan to eliminate the threat entirely.
* Transfer: Shifting the impact of a threat to a third party, together with ownership of the response.
This often involves the payment of a risk premium to the party taking on the risk (e.g., insurance, performance bonds, warranties, or fixed-price contracts).
* Mitigate: Acting to reduce the probability of occurrence or the impact of a threat.
* Accept: Acknowledging the risk and not taking any action unless the risk occurs.
Analysis of Other Options: The other options provided are strategies used specifically for Opportunities (Positive Risks):
* A. Exploit: Seeking to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring the opportunity definitely happens.
* B. Share: Allocating some or all of the ownership of the opportunity to a third party who is best able to capture the benefit for the project.
* C. Enhance: Increasing the probability and/or the positive impacts of an opportunity.
NEW QUESTION # 457
A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation
Explanation:
11.2.2.6 SWOT Analysis
This technique examines the project from each of the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) perspectives to increase the breadth of identified risks by including internally generated risks. The technique starts with identification of strengths and weaknesses of the organization, focusing on either the project, organization, or the business area in general. SWOT analysis then identifies any opportunities for the project that arise from organizational strengths, and any threats arising from organizational weaknesses. The analysis also examines the degree to which organizational strengths offset threats, as well as identifying opportunities that may serve to overcome weaknesses.
Process: 11.2 Identify Risks
Definition: The process of determining which risks may affect the project and documenting their characteristics.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is the documentation of existing risks and the knowledge and ability it provides to the project team to anticipate events.
Inputs
1. Risk management plan
2. Cost management plan
3. Schedule management plan
4. Quality management plan
5. Human resource management plan
6. Scope baseline
7. Activity cost estimates
8. Activity duration estimates
9. Stakeholder register
10.Project documents
11.Procurement documents
12.Enterprise environmental factors
13.Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Documentation reviews
2. Information gathering techniques
3. Checklist analysis
4. Assumptions analysis
5. Diagramming techniques
6. SWOT analysis
7. Expert judgment
Outputs
1. Risk register
11.2.3.1 Risk Register
The primary output from Identify Risks is the initial entry into the risk register. The risk register is a document in which the results of risk analysis and risk response planning are recorded. It contains the outcomes of the other risk management processes as they are conducted, resulting in an increase in the level and type of information contained in the risk register over time. The preparation of the risk register begins in the Identify Risks process with the following information, and then becomes available to other project management and risk management processes:
List of identified risks. The identified risks are described in as much detail as is reasonable. A structure for
describing risks using risk statements may be applied, for example, EVENT may occur causing IMPACT, or If CAUSE exists, EVENT may occur leading to EFFECT. In addition to the list of identified risks, the root causes of those risks may become more evident. These are the fundamental conditions or events that may give rise to one or more identified risks. They should be recorded and used to support future risk identification for this and other projects.
List of potential responses. Potential responses to a risk may sometimes be identified during the Identify
Risks process. These responses, if identified in this process, should be used as inputs to the Plan Risk Responses process.
NEW QUESTION # 458
Which of the following is an example of facit knowledge?
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to the PMBOKGuide (6th Edition), specifically within the Manage Project Knowledge process, knowledge is split into two distinct categories: Explicit and Tacit.
Tacit Knowledge: This is personal knowledge that is difficult to articulate or codify. It includes beliefs, insights, experience, " know-how, " and Expert Judgment. It is stored within the minds of individuals and is typically shared through conversations, shadowing, and interpersonal interaction.
* Explicit Knowledge: This is knowledge that can be codified using symbols such as words, numbers, and pictures. It can be easily documented and shared.
Why Expert Judgment is Tacit Knowledge: Expert judgment relies on the specialized knowledge or expertise of an individual or group. It is built through years of experience and involves intuition and professional " gut feeling " that cannot be fully captured in a manual or a database. When a project manager consults a subject matter expert, they are tapping into that expert ' s tacit knowledge.
Analysis of Distractors:
A (Risk register): This is a formal document that records identified risks and their characteristics. Because it is written down and stored in a database, it is Explicit Knowledge.
* B (Project requirements): These are documented descriptions of what is needed for the project. Since they are codified in a Requirements Documentation or Traceability Matrix, they are Explicit Knowledge.
* D (Make-or-buy analysis): This is a specific tool/technique (often resulting in a documented decision) used to determine whether work can be accomplished by the project team or should be purchased from outside sources. The resulting data and criteria are Explicit Knowledge.
NEW QUESTION # 459
Which Activity Duration Estimating technique incorporates additional timing for contingency purposes?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation:
6.5.2.6 Reserve Analysis
Duration estimates may include contingency reserves, sometimes referred to as time reserves or buffers, into the project schedule to account for schedule uncertainty. Contingency reserves are the estimated duration within the schedule baseline, which is allocated for identified risks that are accepted and for which contingent or mitigation responses are developed. Contingency reserves are associated with the "known-unknowns," which may be estimated to account for this unknown amount of rework.
As more precise information about the project becomes available, the contingency reserve may be used, reduced, or eliminated. Contingency should be clearly identified in schedule documentation.
[..]
Estimates may also be produced for the amount of management reserve of time for the project. Management reserves are a specified amount of the project duration withheld for management control purposes and are reserved for unforeseen work that is within scope of the project. Management reserves are intended to address the "unknown-unknowns" that can affect a project. Management reserve is not included in the schedule baseline, but it is part of the overall project duration requirements. Depending on contract terms, use of management reserves may require a change to the schedule baseline.
NEW QUESTION # 460
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