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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Malware and Incident Response Forensics | 10% | - Malware artifacts and indicators - Static and dynamic malware analysis - Forensics in incident response - Reporting and documentation |
| Topic 2: Digital Evidence Acquisition and Preservation | 15% | - Evidence integrity and hashing - Forensic imaging and verification - Data acquisition methods and tools - Storage and transport of evidence |
| Topic 3: Operating System Forensics | 10% | - Linux forensics - Windows forensics - Mac OS forensics - System artifacts and logs |
| Topic 4: Dark Web and Anti-Forensics | 10% | - Tor browser and artifact analysis - Anti-forensics techniques - Detecting and countering anti-forensics - Dark web concepts and tools |
| Topic 5: Network and Web Forensics | 10% | - Network logs and traffic analysis - Email and messaging forensics - Web server and application logs - Investigating web attacks |
| Topic 6: File Systems and Storage Media Analysis | 15% | - Metadata analysis - Recovering deleted and hidden data - FAT, NTFS, EXT file systems - Disk structures and partitions |
| Topic 7: Computer Forensics Fundamentals | 15% | - Roles and responsibilities of forensic investigators - Concepts and principles of digital forensics - Forensic readiness planning - Types of digital evidence - Legal and ethical frameworks |
| Topic 8: Computer Forensics Investigation Process | 15% | - Investigation phase - Post-investigation and reporting - Chain of custody and evidence handling - Pre-investigation phase |
>> 112-57 Latest Study Questions <<
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NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following steps in forensic readiness planning provides a backup for future reference and assists in presenting evidence in a court of law?
Answer: C
Explanation:
In forensic readiness planning, the goal is to ensure that when an incident occurs, the organization can collect, preserve, and present digital evidence in a manner that remainsreliable, repeatable, and legally defensible. A key requirement for courtroom acceptance is cleardocumentation-often referred to as proper documentation and chain-of-custody support-showing what actions were taken, by whom, when, using which tools, and under what conditions. Creating a defined process for documenting procedures ensures investigators consistently record acquisition steps, handling methods, hashing/verification results, storage locations, access history, and any changes in evidence possession. This documentation becomes a "backup" in the sense that it preserves institutional memory of the investigation steps, allowing future reviewers (auditors, opposing experts, courts) to reconstruct and validate what occurred even long after the incident.
While identifying potential evidence (B) and determining evidence sources (C) are important readiness tasks, they do not themselves create the structured record needed to defend evidence integrity. Keeping an incident response team ready (D) supports operational response, but does not directly ensure admissibility. Therefore, the step that provides future reference and supports court presentation isCreating a process for documenting the procedure (A).
NEW QUESTION # 60
Cheryl, a forensic expert, was recruited to investigate a malicious activity performed by an anonymous hackers' group on an organization's systems. Using an automated tool, Cheryl was able to extract the malware file and analyze the assembly code instructions, which helped him understand the malware's purpose.
Which of the following tools helped Cheryl extract and analyze the assembly code of the malware?
Answer: C
Explanation:
To understand a malware sample's purpose at the instruction level, investigators usereverse-engineering toolsthat candisassemblecompiled binaries intoassembly codeand often allowinteractive debuggingto observe runtime behavior (API calls, unpacking routines, decryption loops, process injection, and control-flow decisions).OllyDbgis a classic Windows user-mode debugger widely referenced in malware analysis workflows because it provides an integrated view ofdisassembly, CPU registers, memory, breakpoints, and execution tracing. This makes it suitable for extracting behavioral insight from the actual assembly instructions, especially when malware uses obfuscation or packers that require stepping through execution to reach the real payload.
The other options do not primarily perform assembly-level analysis.VirtualBoxandVMware vSphereare virtualization platforms; they help safely run malware in isolated environments, but they are not disassemblers
/debuggers for examining assembly instructions.QualNetis a network simulation tool used for modeling network behavior, not binary reverse engineering. Because the question specifically emphasizesanalyzing assembly code instructionsto understand malware purpose, the correct tool among the choices isOllyDbg (C).
NEW QUESTION # 61
While investigating a web attack on a Windows-based server, Jessy executed the following command on her system:
C:> net view <\10.10.10.11>
What was Jessy's objective in running the above command?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Windowsnet view \\<computer>command is used to enumerateshared resources(SMB shares) that a remote Windows system is publishing. When Jessy runsnet view \\10.10.10.11, her goal is to retrieve a list of the target host's visible shares-such as administrative shares (e.g.,C$,ADMIN$) and any custom shares created for departments, applications, or users. In forensic and incident-response practice, this is important because attackers commonly use SMB shares forlateral movement,staging tools,dropping payloads, andexfiltrating data. By reviewing the shares exposed by a suspected server, the investigator can quickly identify unexpected or overly permissive shares, locate potential repositories of web content or logs, and determine whether a compromised web server is also exposing file resources that expand the attacker's options.
The other options map to different commands and artifacts: disk space usage is checked with storage utilities (notnet view), open sessions are examined with commands likenet session, and identifying users accessing files typically involvesnet fileor server auditing logs. Therefore, Jessy's objective was toreview file shareson the remote host.
NEW QUESTION # 62
Identify the investigation team member who is responsible for evidence gathered at the crime scene and maintains a record of the evidence, making it admissible in a court of law.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The role described-being responsible for evidence gathered at the crime scene and maintaining a record that makes the evidence admissible in court-matches the duties of anEvidence manager. In digital forensics practice, admissibility depends heavily on provingintegrity, authenticity, and continuity of possession. The evidence manager ensures these requirements by implementing and documenting thechain of custody, which is the formal, chronological record of who collected the evidence, when and where it was collected, how it was packaged and labeled, how it was transported, where it was stored, and every time it was accessed or transferred. This role also enforces evidence handling procedures such as tamper-evident sealing, secure storage controls, access logging, and verification steps (for example, ensuring hashes are recorded and preserved for forensic images).
Anincident responderfocuses on containment and immediate actions during an incident; anincident analyzerperforms technical analysis and correlation of artifacts; and anevidence examinerconducts detailed forensic examinations on acquired data. While these roles interact with evidence, the specific responsibility for maintaining custody documentation and evidence records to support legal admissibility belongs to theEvidence manager, makingDthe correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 63
Which of the following layers of the TCP/IP model serves as the backbone for data flow between two devices in a network and enables peer entities on the source and destination devices to communicate with each other?
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the TCP/IP model, theTransport layeris responsible forend-to-end communication between peer entitieson the source and destination systems. "Peer entities" here refers to the corresponding transport components (and the applications that use them) on two different hosts communicating across a network. This layer forms the practical "backbone" of host-to-host data flow because it provides the mechanisms that allow data to be deliveredfrom one endpoint process to another endpoint processreliably or efficiently, depending on the protocol used.
The Transport layer includes protocols such asTCPandUDP. TCP supports connection-oriented communication with sequencing, acknowledgments, retransmissions, and flow control-features that are fundamental when reconstructing sessions during network forensic investigations (e.g., rebuilding a file transfer or a web session). UDP provides connectionless delivery used by many services where speed is preferred over guaranteed delivery, which is also significant in investigations of DNS, streaming, or certain malware communications.
By contrast, theInternet layerfocuses on logical addressing and routing (IP), theNetwork access layerhandles local delivery on the physical/link network, and theApplication layerprovides user-facing protocols.
Therefore, the layer enabling peer communication between endpoints is theTransport layer (C).
NEW QUESTION # 64
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