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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Special Collections | - Pediatric and geriatric considerations - Non-routine specimen collection methods - Capillary puncture (fingerstick/heel stick) |
| Topic 2: Patient Preparation | - Site selection and preparation - Patient identification and communication - Specimen labeling procedures |
| Topic 3: Safety and Compliance | - OSHA regulations and patient safety - HIPAA and patient confidentiality - Infection control and standard precautions |
| Topic 4: Routine Blood Collections | - Equipment selection and use - Venipuncture procedures - Order of draw |
| Topic 5: Specimen Processing and Handling | - Common errors and rejection criteria - Specimen transport and storage - Quality assurance procedures |
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NEW QUESTION # 109
Which of the following is the correct method for cleaning a small blood spill?
Answer: A
Explanation:
A small blood spill should be cleaned using an approved disinfectant according to facility policy. Blood is treated as potentially infectious, so spill response requires gloves, appropriate PPE, containment, removal of visible material, disinfection with correct contact time, and proper disposal of contaminated materials. Dry gauze alone does not disinfect the surface and can spread contamination. Air freshener has no disinfection role. Covering the spill and leaving it to dry is unsafe because dried blood may still represent a contamination hazard and creates exposure risk for staff and patients. The specific disinfectant may vary by facility, but it must be appropriate for bloodborne pathogens and used as directed. The phlebotomist must also avoid direct hand contact, dispose of materials in designated biohazard waste when required, and perform hand hygiene after glove removal. This question tests standard precautions, environmental safety, and infection-control discipline. Reference topics: Safety and Compliance; blood spill cleanup; disinfectants; standard precautions; biohazard waste.
NEW QUESTION # 110
A phlebotomist uses a point-of-care instrument to perform a prothrombin time/INR test on a patient that results in a critical value. Which of the following type of medication should the phlebotomist expect to see on the patient's medication list?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A prothrombin time/INR test evaluates the extrinsic and common coagulation pathways and is commonly used to monitor anticoagulant therapy, especially warfarin. Therefore, when a PT/INR point-of-care result is critically abnormal, the medication category most expected on the patient's list is anticoagulants. Anticoagulants interfere with clot formation and can prolong PT/INR values, creating an increased bleeding risk if outside the therapeutic range. Opioids are analgesics and do not directly monitor through PT/INR. Antidiabetics are associated with glucose monitoring, not coagulation testing. Statins are lipid-lowering medications and are usually monitored through lipid panels and liver-related considerations, not PT/INR. A critical PT/INR value must be handled according to facility policy, documented accurately, and reported through the correct clinical pathway; the phlebotomist does not interpret or treat the result independently. The NHA CPT outline covers point-of-care testing, critical values for POC and CLIA-waived testing, hemostasis, coagulation, and reporting requirements. Reference topics: Special Collections; point-of-care testing; hemostasis and coagulation; critical value reporting.
NEW QUESTION # 111
Which of the following actions can cause hemolysis during venipuncture?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Using a needle with a gauge that is too small can cause hemolysis. A small-bore needle can create excessive mechanical force as blood passes through the lumen, damaging red blood cells and releasing intracellular contents into serum or plasma. Hemolysis can alter test results, especially potassium, lactate dehydrogenase, and other analytes affected by red-cell rupture. Allowing alcohol to dry before puncture is correct practice because it reduces stinging and helps prevent contamination. Releasing the tourniquet before needle removal is also correct because it reduces pressure and supports safer needle withdrawal. Mixing additive tubes by gentle inversion is required; the danger occurs when tubes are shaken vigorously. Additional hemolysis causes include probing, drawing through a hematoma, forcing blood from a syringe into a tube, rough transport, incorrect centrifugation, and delayed processing. A phlebotomist must choose equipment appropriate to the patient's vein while maintaining specimen quality. Reference topics: Routine Blood Collections; hemolysis; needle gauge selection; specimen integrity; preanalytical error.
NEW QUESTION # 112
Which of the following agencies is responsible for setting guidelines for bloodborne exposure incidents?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration is responsible for workplace safety regulation, including requirements related to bloodborne pathogen exposure. In phlebotomy, bloodborne exposure incidents include needlesticks, blood splashes, mucous membrane exposure, and contact with non-intact skin. OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard requires employers to maintain exposure control plans, provide training, use engineering controls such as safety needles and sharps containers, support appropriate PPE, and establish procedures for exposure reporting and follow-up. CMS is primarily linked to Medicare, Medicaid, and healthcare payment/quality oversight, not direct bloodborne exposure incident standards. The FDA regulates medical devices, drugs, biologics, and related safety approvals. CLIA governs laboratory testing quality standards, not occupational blood exposure response. The option wording on the screen says "Occupational Safety of Health Administration," but the correct agency is OSHA: Occupational Safety and Health Administration. NHA CPT safety content includes OSHA, bloodborne pathogens, sharps disposal, biohazards, exposure control protocols, needlestick reporting, and workplace safety regulations. Reference topics: Safety and Compliance; OSHA; Bloodborne Pathogens Standard; exposure control protocols.
NEW QUESTION # 113
A phlebotomist is preparing a container for a 24-hr urine collection when a chemical splash occurs. The phlebotomist should find information about this chemical from which of the following sources?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct source is the Safety Data Sheet. An SDS provides chemical-specific information about hazards, exposure controls, personal protective equipment, first aid, spill response, handling, storage, and disposal. During a chemical splash, the phlebotomist must follow facility policy immediately, use the eyewash or shower if indicated, notify appropriate personnel, and consult the SDS for the exact chemical involved. Current Procedural Terminology is a medical coding system and has no role in chemical exposure response. The CDC provides infection-control guidance, but it is not the primary document for a specific chemical's hazard and first-aid requirements. OSHA establishes workplace safety regulations, including hazard communication expectations, but the SDS is the actual document used at the point of exposure for chemical-specific instructions. NHA CPT safety content includes workplace safety regulations, exposure control protocols, reporting requirements, PPE, and biohazard or chemical safety practices. OSHA also describes SDSs as documents containing chemical properties, hazards, protective measures, and safety precautions. Reference topics: Safety and Compliance; chemical exposure; SDS; OSHA hazard communication.
NEW QUESTION # 114
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