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NEW QUESTION # 41
A security analyst is reviewing the following vulnerability assessment report:
192.168.1.5, Host = Server1, CVSS 7.5, Web Server, Remotely Executable = Yes, Exploit = Yes
205.1.3.5, Host = Server2, CVSS 6.5, Bind Server, Remotely Executable = Yes, Exploit = POC
207.1.5.7, Host = Server3, CVSS 5.5, Email Server, Remotely Executable = Yes, Exploit = Yes
192.168.1.6, Host = Server4, CVSS 9.8, Domain Controller, Remotely Executable = Yes, Exploit = Yes Which of the following should be patched first to minimize attacks against internet-facing hosts?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The question focuses oninternet-facing hosts, implying external exposure. CVSS scores, remote executability, and exploit availability guide prioritization. Server2 (205.1.3.5, CVSS 6.5, Bind Server) has a public IP, suggesting it's internet-facing, unlike Server1 and Server4 (192.168.x.x, private IPs). Server3 (207.1.5.7, CVSS 5.5) is also public but has a lower score and risk compared to Server2's proof-of-concept (POC) exploit. Server2's Bind Server (DNS) role is critical and commonly targeted, making it the priority.
* Option A:Server1 (CVSS 7.5) is private, not internet-facing.
* Option B:Server2 (CVSS 6.5) is internet-facing with an exploit POC, warranting immediate patching.
* Option C:Server3 (CVSS 5.5) is internet-facing but less severe.
* Option D:Server4 (CVSS 9.8) is critical but private, not internet-facing.
NEW QUESTION # 42
A company's security policy states that any publicly available server must be patched within 12 hours after a patch is released A recent llS zero-day vulnerability was discovered that affects all versions of the Windows Server OS:
Which of the following hosts should a security analyst patch first once a patch is available?
Answer: F
Explanation:
Based on the security policy that any publicly available server must be patched within 12 hours after a patch is released, the security analyst should patch Host 1 first. Here's why:
Public Availability: Host 1 is externally available, making it accessible from the internet. Publicly available servers are at higher risk of being targeted by attackers, especially when a zero-day vulnerability is known.
Exposure to Threats: Host 1 has IIS installed and is publicly accessible, increasing its exposure to potential exploitation. Patching this host first reduces the risk of a successful attack.
Prioritization of Critical Assets: According to best practices, assets that are exposed to higher risks should be prioritized for patching to mitigate potential threats promptly.
Reference:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
NIST Special Publication 800-40: Guide to Enterprise Patch Management Technologies CIS Controls: Control 3 - Continuous Vulnerability Management
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the following most likely explains the reason a security engineer replaced ECC with a lattice-based cryptographic technique?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Lattice-based schemes, such as Learning With Errors (LWE) or Ring-LWE, are among the leading candidates in NIST's post-quantum cryptography standardization process because their underlying hard problems resist known quantum-algorithm speedups. Replacing ECC with a lattice-based algorithm directly addresses the threat posed by future quantum computers, making it the preferred choice for long-term cryptographic agility.
NEW QUESTION # 44
A company lined an email service provider called my-email.com to deliver company emails. The company stalled having several issues during the migration. A security engineer is troubleshooting and observes the following configuration snippet:
Which of the following should the security engineer modify to fix the issue? (Select two).
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The security engineer should modify the following to fix the email migration issues:
* Email CNAME Record: The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to
192.168.1.10. This is because CNAME records should not be used where an IP address (A record) is
* required. Changing it to an A record ensures direct pointing to the correct IP.
* TXT Record for DMARC: The TXT record must be changed to "v=dmarc ip4:192.168.1.10 include com -all". This ensures proper configuration of DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting
& Conformance) to include the correct IP address and the email service provider domain.
* DMARC: Ensuring the DMARC record is correctly set up helps in preventing email spoofing and phishing, aligning with email security best practices.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* RFC 7489: Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance (DMARC)
* NIST Special Publication 800-45: Guidelines on Electronic Mail Security
NEW QUESTION # 45
A user submits a help desk ticket stating then account does not authenticatesometimes. An analyst reviews the following logs for the user:
Which of the following best explains the reason the user ' s access is being denied?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The logs reviewed for the user indicate that access is being denied due to time-based access restrictions. These restrictions are commonly implemented to limit access to systems during specific hours to enhance security. If a user attempts to authenticate outside of the allowed time window, access will be denied. This measure helps prevent unauthorized access during non-business hours, reducing the risk of security incidents.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Covers various access control methods, including time-based restrictions, as a means of enhancing security.
NIST Special Publication 800-53, " Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations
" : Recommends the use of time-based access restrictions as part of access control policies.
" Access Control and Identity Management " by Mike Chapple and Aaron French: Discusses the implementation and benefits of time-based access restrictions.
NEW QUESTION # 46
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