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ISC CISSP Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionWeightObjectives
Security Architecture and Engineering13%- Apply cryptography
  • 1. Encryption methods
  • 2. PKI
- Understand security capabilities of systems
  • 1. Virtualization
  • 2. Hardware security
- Research and implement security models
  • 1. Trusted computing base
  • 2. Security frameworks
- Select controls based on security requirements
  • 1. Detective controls
  • 2. Preventive controls
- Assess vulnerabilities of architectures
  • 1. Embedded systems
  • 2. Cloud-based systems
Security Operations13%- Understand and support investigations
  • 1. Digital forensics
  • 2. Evidence handling
- Implement disaster recovery processes
  • 1. Recovery testing
  • 2. Business continuity
- Implement incident management
  • 1. Incident response
  • 2. Recovery procedures
- Conduct logging and monitoring activities
  • 1. SIEM
  • 2. Continuous monitoring
- Operate and maintain preventive measures
  • 1. Patch management
  • 2. Backup operations
Software Development Security11%- Assess software security effectiveness
  • 1. Application testing
  • 2. Security metrics
- Understand software development lifecycle security
  • 1. DevSecOps
  • 2. Secure SDLC
- Identify and mitigate vulnerabilities
  • 1. Static and dynamic testing
  • 2. Code review
Asset Security10%- Manage data lifecycle
  • 1. Data storage
  • 2. Data sharing
- Identify and classify information and assets
  • 1. Asset ownership
  • 2. Data classification
- Provision resources securely
  • 1. Media handling
  • 2. Asset lifecycle management
- Establish information handling requirements
  • 1. Data retention
  • 2. Secure disposal
Security and Risk Management15%- Identify and analyze threats and vulnerabilities
  • 1. Threat modeling
  • 2. Risk analysis methodologies
- Understand and apply threat modeling concepts
  • 1. Threat actors
  • 2. Attack surfaces
- Develop and manage security policies
  • 1. Standards and guidelines
  • 2. Policy lifecycle
- Understand requirements for investigation types
  • 1. Criminal investigations
  • 2. Administrative investigations
- Understand legal and regulatory issues
  • 1. Licensing and intellectual property
  • 2. Cyber crimes and data breaches
- Apply risk management concepts
  • 1. Risk treatment
  • 2. Risk assessment
  • 3. Risk monitoring
- Establish and manage security awareness training
  • 1. Training effectiveness
  • 2. Awareness programs
- Determine compliance requirements
  • 1. Legal and regulatory requirements
  • 2. Privacy requirements
- Evaluate and apply security governance principles
  • 1. Organizational processes
  • 2. Roles and responsibilities
  • 3. Security policies and procedures
- Understand and apply security concepts
  • 1. Security governance principles
  • 2. Confidentiality, integrity and availability
  • 3. Due care and due diligence
- Apply supply chain risk management concepts
  • 1. Vendor assessments
  • 2. Third-party governance
Security Assessment and Testing12%- Collect and analyze test outputs
  • 1. Reporting
  • 2. Log reviews
- Conduct security control testing
  • 1. Vulnerability assessments
  • 2. Penetration testing
- Design and validate assessment strategies
  • 1. Security testing
  • 2. Audit strategies
Communication and Network Security13%- Implement secure design principles in networks
  • 1. Segmentation
  • 2. Network architecture
- Secure network components
  • 1. Firewalls
  • 2. Routers and switches
- Implement secure communication channels
  • 1. Secure protocols
  • 2. VPN
Identity and Access Management13%- Manage identification and authentication
  • 1. MFA
  • 2. Federated identity
- Control physical and logical access
  • 1. Access provisioning
  • 2. Identity lifecycle
- Integrate identity as a service
  • 1. SSO
  • 2. Cloud identity

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ISC Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Sample Questions (Q593-Q598):

NEW QUESTION # 593
Which of the following BEST describes "Separation of Duties" as applied to cloud administrator roles?

Answer: B

Explanation:
Applying separation of duties in cloud environments involves dividing critical administrative functions-such as resource provisioning, security policy changes, and billing approval-among different individuals or roles, reducing the risk that a single compromised or malicious administrator account could unilaterally cause significant harm without requiring additional approval or oversight.


NEW QUESTION # 594
Which of the following statements pertaining to software testing approaches is correct?

Answer: D

Explanation:
The test plan and results should always be retained as part of the system's permanent documentation.
A bottom-up approach to testing begins testing of atomic units, such as programs or modules, and works upwards until a complete system testing has taken place. It allows errors in critical modules to be found early. A top-down approach allows for early detection of interface errors and raises confidence in the system, as programmers and users actually see a working system. White box testing is predicated on a close examination of procedural detail. Black box testing examines some aspect of the system with little regard for the internal logical structure of the software.
Source: Information Systems Audit and Control Association, Certified Information Systems
Auditor 2002 review manual, Chapter 6: Business Application System Development,
Acquisition, Implementation and Maintenance (page 300).
Top Down Testing: An approach to integration testing where the component at the top of the component hierarchy is tested first, with lower level components being simulated by stubs. Tested components are then used to test lower level components. The process is repeated until the lowest level components have been tested.
Bottom Up Testing: An approach to integration testing where the lowest level components are tested first, then used to facilitate the testing of higher level components. The process is repeated until the component at the top of the hierarchy is tested.
Black Box Testing: Testing based on an analysis of the specification of a piece of software without reference to its internal workings. The goal is to test how well the component conforms to the published requirements for the component.


NEW QUESTION # 595
In a PKI infrastructure where are list of revoked certificates stored?

Answer: B

Explanation:
Certificate revocation is the process of revoking a certificate before it expires.
A certificate may need to be revoked because it was stolen, an employee moved to a new
company, or someone has had their access revoked. A certificate revocation is handled either
through a Certificate Revocation List (CRL) or by using the Online Certificate Status Protocol
(OCSP).
A repository is simply a database or database server where the certificates are stored. The
process of revoking a certificate begins when the CA is notified that a particular certificate needs
to be revoked. This must be done whenever the private key becomes known/compromised.
The owner of a certificate can request it be revoked at any time, or the request can be made by
the administrator. The CA marks the certificate as revoked. This information is published in the
CRL. The revocation process is usually very quick; time is based on the publication interval for the
CRL.
Disseminating the revocation information to users may take longer. Once the certificate has been
revoked, it can never be used-or trusted-again. The CA publishes the CRL on a regular basis,
usually either hourly or daily. The CA sends or publishes this list to organizations that have chosen
to receive it; the publishing process occurs automatically in the case of PKI. The time between
when the CRL is issued and when it reaches users may be too long for some applications. This
time gap is referred to as latency.
OCSP solves the latency problem: If the recipient or relaying party uses OCSP for verification, the
answer is available immediately.
The following answers are incorrect:
Registration Authority (RA) A registration authority (RA) is an authority in a network that verifies user requests for a digital certificate and tells the certificate authority (CA) to issue it. RAs are part of a public key infrastructure (PKI), a networked system that enables companies and users to exchange information and money safely and securely. The digital certificate contains a public key that is used to encrypt and decrypt messages and digital signatures.
Recovery agent Sometimes it is necessary to recover a lost key. One of the problems that often arises regarding PKI is the fear that documents will become lost forever-irrecoverable because someone loses or forgets his private key. Let's say that employees use Smart Cards to hold their private keys. If a user was to leave his Smart Card in his or her wallet that was left in the pants that he or she accidentally threw into the washing machine, then that user might be without his private key and therefore incapable of accessing any documents or e-mails that used his existing private key.
Many corporate environments implement a key recovery server solely for the purpose of backing up and recovering keys. Within an organization, there typically is at least one key recovery agent. A key recovery agent has the authority and capability to restore a user's lost private key. Some key recovery servers require that two key recovery agents retrieve private user keys together for added security. This is similar to certain bank accounts, which require two signatures on a check for added security. Some key recovery servers also have the ability to function as a key escrow server, thereby adding the ability to split the keys onto two separate recovery servers, further increasing security.
Key escrow (also known as a "fair" cryptosystem) is an arrangement in which the keys needed to decrypt encrypted data are held in escrow so that, under certain circumstances, an authorized third party may gain access to those keys. These third parties may include businesses, who may want access to employees' private communications, or governments, who may wish to be able to view the contents of encrypted communications.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question: Dulaney, Emmett (2011-06-03). CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-301 (pp. 347-348). John Wiley and Sons. Kindle Edition. and http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Key_escrow and http://my.safaribooksonline.com/book/certification/securityplus/9781597494267/public-key
infrastructure/ch12lev1sec5 and http://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/registration-authority


NEW QUESTION # 596
A user has infected a computer with malware by connecting a Universal Serial Bus (USB) storage device.
Which of the following is MOST effective to mitigate future infections?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Asset Security


NEW QUESTION # 597
Which of the following activities BEST identifies operational problems, security misconfigurations, and malicious attacks?

Answer: B

Explanation:
The activity that best identifies operational problems, security misconfigurations, and malicious attacks is periodic log reviews. Log reviews are the process of examining and analyzing the records of events or activities that occur on a system or network, such as user actions, system errors, security alerts, or network traffic. Periodic log reviews can help to identify operational problems, such as system failures, performance issues, or configuration errors, by detecting anomalies, trends, or patterns in the log data. Periodic log reviews can also help to identify security misconfigurations, such as weak passwords, open ports, or missing patches, by comparing the log data with the security policies, standards, or baselines. Periodic log reviews can also help to identify malicious attacks, such as unauthorized access, data breaches, or denial of service, by recognizing signs of intrusion, compromise, or exploitation in the log data.


NEW QUESTION # 598
......

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