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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Dimensions of Care | - Acute Care
|
| Topic 2: Physician Activities | - Communication
|
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NEW QUESTION # 46
A 94-year-old woman with severe dementia is referred for vaginal bleeding and a persistent foul odour from the vagina. She lives in a long-term care facility. She has been using a ring pessary for the past 15 years. Her current pessary has not been replaced in 2 years. On examination, there is moderate vaginal atrophy. After removing the pessary, which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: C
Explanation:
In elderly women with long-term pessary use and signs of vaginal atrophy (thin epithelium, bleeding, odor), local estrogen is the most appropriate initial treatment to restore the vaginal epithelium and reduce inflammation and discharge. Vaginal estrogen improves mucosal integrity and reduces complications like ulceration, infection, and bleeding.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Pelvic Organ Prolapse and Pessary Care" Section:
"Local vaginal estrogen therapy is recommended for postmenopausal women with vaginal atrophy who are using pessaries. It reduces the risk of erosions, bleeding, and infection, especially when pessary follow-up has been suboptimal." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics and Gynecology > 82-9: Vaginal Bleeding in Postmenopausal Women):
"Candidates should recognize vaginal atrophy as a common and treatable cause of bleeding in elderly women using pessaries." A biopsy (E) may be needed if symptoms persist after atrophy is treated. Hysteroscopy (A) is invasive and not first-line in this setting. Metronidazole (B) is not indicated without evidence of bacterial vaginosis. Daily saline douching (D) is not recommended and may irritate atrophic mucosa.
NEW QUESTION # 47
You are asked to see a 50-year-old man 2 hours after he underwent a laparotomy for gastric resection. Lab results are as follows:
pH
7.28 (7.35-7.45)
PaCO#
60 mm Hg (35-40)
PaO#
60 mm Hg (85-105) with 4 L/min via nasal prongs
Bicarbonate (HCO#)
24 mmol/L (24-30)
Which one of the following is most consistent with this clinical presentation?
Answer: B
Explanation:
This ABG reveals primary respiratory acidosis (#pH, #PaCO#, normal HCO#), likely from hypoventilation due to postoperative pain, sedation, or narcotics. PaO# is also low, suggesting inadequate oxygenation.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Respiratory, "Postoperative Respiratory Complications":
"Postoperative respiratory acidosis results from hypoventilation, often due to pain, sedatives, or poor respiratory effort. Assess airway, breathing, and support oxygenation." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 44-3: Acid-Base Disturbances):
"Candidates must recognize respiratory acidosis on ABG and relate findings to common postoperative complications." Metabolic acidosis (C) would show #HCO#. Compensated alkalosis (D) would show opposite ABG changes.
Hypermetabolic states increase respiratory drive, not decrease it.
NEW QUESTION # 48
A 2.5-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after he consumed a button-shaped battery. Chest and abdomen radiographies are performed. Which one of the following locations mandates urgent removal of the battery?
Answer: E
Explanation:
Button batteries lodged in the esophagus require urgent endoscopic removal due to risk of tissue necrosis, perforation, and tracheoesophageal fistula within hours. Batteries beyond the esophagus may pass spontaneously if the child is asymptomatic.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, "Foreign Body Ingestion":
"Button batteries in the esophagus are medical emergencies and must be removed immediately. Batteries in the stomach or intestines may be observed if the child is asymptomatic." MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-2: Gastrointestinal Emergencies):
"Candidates must identify when foreign body ingestion poses immediate risk and requires emergency intervention." Batteries in the stomach or intestines (A-C, E) usually pass without complication, especially if the child is asymptomatic and the battery is <2 cm.
NEW QUESTION # 49
A 19-year-old woman with a long-standing history of abuse and borderline personality disorder presents to your office. She has a number of superficial lacerations over her arms and legs. They look like they were caused by a sharp edge such as a knife. They are at various stages of healing, and some look like they are a few hours old, though none require stitches. Which one of the following is the most likely comment she would make about the injuries?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Patients with borderline personality disorder commonly engage in non-suicidal self-injury (NSSI) such as superficial cutting. According to MCCQE objectives in psychiatry, this behavior is typically a maladaptive coping mechanism used to regulate intense emotional distress, feelings of emptiness, anger, or dissociation.
The act of cutting often produces a transient sense of relief due to reduction of psychological tension and may be reinforced by endogenous opioid release. Therefore, patients frequently report that they "feel better afterward." It is important to distinguish NSSI from suicidal intent. Although individuals with borderline personality disorder are at increased risk of suicide, superficial cutting behavior is most often performed to relieve affective dysregulation rather than to die. It is not primarily attention-seeking, obsession with blood, or body modification. Management priorities include thorough suicide risk assessment, validation of emotional distress, establishing safety, and referral for evidence-based psychotherapy such as dialectical behavior therapy (DBT), which specifically targets emotional regulation and self-harm behaviors.
NEW QUESTION # 50
You are covering for your colleague who is on vacation this week. You receive the results from an ultrasonography that had been ordered for a 32-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, aborta 0. The ultrasonography-estimated fetal weight is below the fifth percentile for 30 weeks' gestation; gestational age was confirmed by an earlier ultrasonogram. The amniotic fluid volume is within normal range. Her first child's birth weight was 2800 g at full term. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
An estimated fetal weight below the 5th percentile at 30 weeks is concerning for intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). This warrants prompt evaluation of fetal well-being via biophysical profile and Doppler assessment. The patient should be referred for further fetal assessment immediately to rule out placental insufficiency or other complications.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics, "Fetal Growth Restriction":
"EFW < 10th percentile, especially < 5th, warrants further evaluation including Doppler studies and biophysical profile. Immediate assessment is warranted to determine fetal well-being." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-4: Antepartum Surveillance):
"Candidates must initiate urgent assessment in cases of abnormal fetal growth to reduce perinatal morbidity." Delaying care (B) is inappropriate. Reassurance (A) is unsafe. ASA (D) is preventative, not corrective.
Doppler (E) is important but should be coordinated through obstetrical triage.
NEW QUESTION # 51
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