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CompTIA SY0-701 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • General Security Concepts: This topic covers various types of security controls, fundamental security concepts, the importance of change management processes in security, and the significance of using suitable cryptographic solutions.
Topic 2
  • Security Operations: This topic delves into applying common security techniques to computing resources, addressing security implications of proper hardware, software, and data asset management, managing vulnerabilities effectively, and explaining security alerting and monitoring concepts. It also discusses enhancing enterprise capabilities for security, implementing identity and access management, and utilizing automation and orchestration for secure operations.
Topic 3
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations: In this topic, you'll find discussions comparing threat actors and motivations, explaining common threat vectors and attack surfaces, and outlining different types of vulnerabilities. Moreover, the topic focuses on analyzing indicators of malicious activity in scenarios and exploring mitigation techniques used to secure enterprises against threats.
Topic 4
  • Security Program Management and Oversight: Finally, this topic discusses elements of effective security governance, the risk management process, third-party risk assessment, and management processes. Additionally, the topic focuses on security compliance requirements, types and purposes of audits and assessments, and implementing security awareness practices in various scenarios.
Topic 5
  • Security Architecture: Here, you'll learn about security implications across different architecture models, applying security principles to secure enterprise infrastructure in scenarios, and comparing data protection concepts and strategies. The topic also delves into the importance of resilience and recovery in security architecture.

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CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q289-Q294):

NEW QUESTION # 289
SIMULATION 6
You are a security operations analyst for a healthcare provider. Your main job function is to compare current, high-fidelity threat intelligence feeds to activity occurring on a web server and electronic medical record (EMR) server.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each threat intelligence feed and console connection to:
Review the appropriate threat intelligence feed

Determine if your servers are targeted

Remediate any compromise found by stopping only services connecting to bad hosts and

removing associated files
Type help into the console to obtain a list of available commands.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.


Answer:

Explanation:
Web Server - actions to perform
1. Stop sshd, vncserver, and vsftpd because they are actively connected to 36.220.4.27 (SSH, VNC, FTP) - a high-confidence, high-frequency attacker that specifically targets the healthcare sector.
2. Stop the HTTPS process (usually httpd or a downloader such as wget/curl) that is talking to
52.104.29.42 and 66.101.22.80, both flagged with high confidence in today's feed.
3. Remove any files those services dropped (check /tmp, /var/www/html/, and users' home directories) to eliminate footholds left by the attacker.
Web Server
36.220.4.27, 52.104.29.42, and 66.101.22.80 all appear in the current high-fidelity feed with Confidence = High; terminating only the services that are communicating with these specific IPs cleanly severs the malicious channels without interrupting unrelated functionality.
EMR Server - actions to perform
1. Stop the MSSQL client service (process name typically sqlcmd or isql) that is connected to
76.17.89.65 - the only high-confidence MSSQL threat in the feeds.
2. Stop sshd, vncserver, and vsftpd if they are reaching 36.220.4.27 (same healthcare-focused attacker as above).
3. Delete any artifacts those processes created in /opt/mssql/, /tmp, or a user's home directory.
EMR Server
76.17.89.65 (High confidence, MSSQL) and 36.220.4.27 (High confidence, multi-protocol) represent the only current high-fidelity threats relevant to an EMR system. Disabling just the affected services and purging their dropped files removes the compromise while leaving essential EMR functions intact.


NEW QUESTION # 290
A security analyst finds a rogue device during a monthly audit of current endpoint assets that are connected to the network. The corporate network utilizes 002.1X for access control. To be allowed on the network, a device must have a Known hardware address, and a valid user name and password must be entered in a captive portal. The following is the audit report:

Which of the following is the most likely way a rogue device was allowed to connect?

Answer: C

Explanation:
The most likely way a rogue device was able to connect to the network is through a MAC cloning attack. In this attack, a personal device copies the MAC address of an authorized device, bypassing the 802.1X access control that relies on known hardware addresses for network access. The matching MAC addresses in the audit report suggest that this technique was used to gain unauthorized network access.
References =
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture.
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Network Security and MAC Address Spoofing.


NEW QUESTION # 291
Which security controls is a company implementing by deploying HIPS? (Select two)

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
A Host-Based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) provides preventive and detective security controls. Security+ SY0-701 explains that:
As a preventive control (B), HIPS actively blocks malicious behavior, stops unauthorized changes, prevents exploit execution, and enforces host-level protection. It prevents malware, intrusions, and unauthorized actions before they occur.
As a detective control (F), HIPS monitors host activity, detects suspicious patterns, logs events, and alerts administrators when threats are observed.
Directive controls (A) involve policy, not technical tools. Physical controls (C) include barriers and locks. Corrective controls (D) restore systems after incidents. Compensating controls (E) are alternatives when primary controls aren't available.
Therefore, the correct answers are B (Preventive) and F (Detective).


NEW QUESTION # 292
Which of the following threat actors would most likely deface the website of a high-profile music group?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Detailed Explanation:An unskilled attacker, often referred to as a script kiddie, is likely to engage in website defacement. This type of attack typically requires minimal expertise and is often conducted for notoriety.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 2: Threats, Section: "Threat Actors and Motivations".


NEW QUESTION # 293
Which of the following explains the difference between data masking and data tokenization?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Data masking hides sensitive information by replacing, redacting, or transforming it so the original value is not normally recoverable in routine use. It is commonly used for test, development, analytics, and reporting environments where users need realistic-looking data but should not see actual sensitive values. Tokenization replaces sensitive data with a token that has no exploitable meaning by itself. The original value is stored separately in a secure token vault, allowing authorized systems to reverse the token back to the real value when needed. Encryption is different because it mathematically transforms data using keys. For Security+, the key distinction is reversibility: masking is usually irreversible, while tokenization is reversible through controlled lookup.


NEW QUESTION # 294
......

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