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APMG-International ISO-IEC-27001-Foundation Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Objectives
ISMS Implementation and Continuous Improvement	- Internal review and continual improvement principles - Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) cycle
ISO/IEC 27001 Framework	- Clauses 4–10 overview (ISMS requirements) - Structure of ISO/IEC 27001:2022
Annex A Controls (ISO/IEC 27001:2022 alignment)	- Control objectives and implementation intent - Organizational, People, Physical, and Technological controls overview
Risk Management	- Risk identification and assessment principles - Risk treatment and controls selection
Information Security Management Principles	- Information security objectives and benefits - Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability (CIA) concepts

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APMG-International ISO/IEC 27001 (2022) Foundation Exam Sample Questions (Q51-Q56):

NEW QUESTION # 51
What is required to be reported by the Information security event reporting control?

A. Unauthorized access
B. Information disclosure
C. Asset disposal
D. Observed or suspected events

Answer: D

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:
Annex A, control 6.8 (Information security event reporting) specifies:
"Information security events should be reported through appropriate management channels as quickly as possible. The organization should require all employees and contractors to note and report any observed or suspected information security events." This wording confirms that the required reporting covers"observed or suspected events."Specific event types like information disclosure (A) or unauthorized access (B) are examples but not the broad requirement.
Asset disposal (C) is addressed separately under equipment lifecycle controls (Annex A.7.14).
Therefore, the verified correct answer isD: Observed or suspected events.

NEW QUESTION # 52
Which statement describes a purpose of monitoring, measurement, analysis and evaluation according to ISO
/IEC 27001?

A. To ensure that employees and contractors are competent
B. To evaluate information security performance
C. To track the use of outsourced processes
D. To monitor the use of information assets

Answer: B

Explanation:
Clause 9.1 requires:
"The organization shall evaluate the information security performance and the effectiveness of the information security management system." This is the central purpose of monitoring, measurement, analysis, and evaluation. Competence (B) is covered under Clause 7.2. Monitoring use of assets (C) and outsourced processes (D) may be done, but they are not the formal purpose described in the standard. Instead, performance evaluation ensures the ISMS continues to meet intended outcomes and supports continual improvement.
Thus, the verified purpose is A: To evaluate information security performance.

NEW QUESTION # 53
Which statement describes a requirement for information security objectives?

A. They shall all be measurable
B. They shall be reviewed at least annually
C. They shall be contractually transferred to third parties
D. They shall be consistent with the information security policy

Answer: D

Explanation:
Clause 6.2 (Information security objectives) requires that objectives:
"be consistent with the information security policy"
"be measurable (if practicable)"
"take into account applicable information security requirements"
"be monitored, communicated, and updated as appropriate."

NEW QUESTION # 54
What is a requirement for a corrective action made in response to a nonconformity?

A. They are proportionate to the likelihood of the nonconformity recurring
B. They are appropriate to the effects of the nonconformity
C. They always eliminate the cause of the nonconformity
D. They do NOT change the organization's information security policies

Answer: B

Explanation:
Clause 10.1 (Nonconformity and corrective action) specifies:
"The organization shall react to the nonconformity and, as applicable: take action to control and correct it; deal with the consequences; evaluate the need for action to eliminate the cause(s)...
Corrective actions shall be appropriate to the effects of the nonconformities encountered." This confirms optionB. Option A is inaccurate-ISO requires actions appropriate toeffects, not probability alone. Option C is false-policies may need updating to correct nonconformities. Option D is incorrect, as not every cause can always be eliminated; residual issues may exist.
Thus, the verified requirement isB.

NEW QUESTION # 55
Which statement about the conduct of audits is true?

A. Third party audits are conducted by a customer of the organization
B. One of the focus areas for a surveillance audit is the output from internal audits and management reviews
C. The certificate issued after a successful re-certification audit in typical schemes lasts for one year
D. During Stage 1 of a certification audit, evidence is collected by observing activities

Answer: B

Explanation:
Clause 9.2 (Internal Audit) and Clause 9.3 (Management Review) highlight that audit outputs and management reviews are key inputs for evaluating ISMS performance. Surveillance audits, conducted by Certification Bodies, check ongoing compliance and effectiveness. ISO certification schemes (per ISO/IEC
17021) require surveillance audits to verify whether corrective actions and continuous improvements are being made. A critical focus area is theresults of internal audits and management reviews, ensuring that the organization maintains its ISMS between certification cycles.
Option A is incorrect - third-party audits are performed by independent Certification Bodies, not customers.
Option B is incorrect - certificates are typically valid forthree yearswith annual surveillance. Option D is incorrect - Stage 1 is primarily adocumentation and readiness review, not evidence observation.
Therefore, the verified correct answer isC.

NEW QUESTION # 56
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