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The ISC CISSP exam is conducted by the International Information Systems Security Certification Consortium (ISC)², which is a non-profit organization committed to advancing the cybersecurity profession by promoting best practices and education. The CISSP exam is designed to measure a candidate's knowledge in various domains of information security, such as security and risk management, asset security, security engineering, communication and network security, identity and access management, security assessment and testing, security operations, and software development security.
The CISSP Exam consists of 250 multiple-choice questions, and the exam duration is six hours. CISSP exam tests the candidate's knowledge in eight domains of information security, which include security and risk management, asset security, security architecture and engineering, communication and network security, identity and access management, security assessment and testing, security operations, and software development security.
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The candidate must earn 40 continuing education units (CEUs) for the MCISSP credential. The CEUs may be earned through participation in the ISSA-certified training course, obtaining CEUs from any other Information Systems Security Association (ISSA) member, obtaining certification credits for passing the exam, or through participating in many other online sites.
The Master level provides a well-rounded view of the entire field of information security and prepares professionals to step into security executive positions as well as pursuing the CISSP (ISC)2. The candidate must have either a minimum of five years professional experience in two or more areas of information security; or one year of experience in two or more areas of information security and a four-year college degree. As the MCISSP has broadened its reach, it can now be achieved by those who hold this credential and no prior professional-level certifications.
Three new specialties were added to give depth to students' profession knowledge, which was not previously seen with the MCSE speciality.
NEW QUESTION # 1810
Which of the following pairings uses technology to enforce access control policies?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The preventive/technical pairing uses technology to enforce access control policies.
TECHNICAL CONTROLS
Technical security involves the use of safeguards incorporated in computer hardware, operations or applications software, communications hardware and software, and related devices. Technical controls are sometimes referred to as logical controls.
Preventive Technical Controls
Preventive technical controls are used to prevent unauthorized personnel or programs from gaining remote access to computing resources. Examples of these controls include:
* Access control software.
* Antivirus software.
* Library control systems.
* Passwords.
* Smart cards.
* Encryption.
* Dial-up access control and callback systems.
Preventive Physical Controls
Preventive physical controls are employed to prevent unauthorized personnel from entering computing facilities (i.e., locations housing computing resources, supporting utilities, computer hard copy, and input data media) and to help protect against natural disasters.
Examples of these controls include:
* Backup files and documentation.
* Fences.
* Security guards.
* Badge systems.
* Double door systems.
* Locks and keys.
* Backup power.
* Biometric access controls.
* Site selection.
* Fire extinguishers.
Preventive Administrative Controls
Preventive administrative controls are personnel-oriented techniques for controlling people's behavior to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of computing data and programs. Examples of preventive administrative controls include:
* Security awareness and technical training.
* Separation of duties.
* Procedures for recruiting and terminating employees.
* Security policies and procedures.
* Supervision.
* Disaster recovery, contingency, and emergency plans.
* User registration for computer access.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the
Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 34
NEW QUESTION # 1811
Which of the following is not a defined maturity level within the Software Capability Maturity Model?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Software Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is based on the premise that the quality of a software product is a direct function of the quality of its associated software development and maintenance processes. It introduces five maturity levels that serve as a foundation for conducting continuous process improvement and as an ordinal scale for measuring the maturity of the organization involved in the software processes.
CMM has Five Maturity Levels of Software Processes:
The initial level: processes are disorganized, even chaotic. Success is likely to depend on individual
efforts, and is not considered to be repeatable as processes would not be sufficiently defined and documented to allow them to be replicated.
The repeatable or managed level: basic project management techniques are established, and
successes could be repeated as the requisite processes would have been made established, defined, and documented.
The defined level: an organization has developed its own standard software process through greater
attention to documentation, standardization, and integration.
The quantatively managed level: an organization monitors and controls its own processes through data
collection and analysis.
The optimized level: processes are constantly being improved through monitoring feedback from
current processes and introducing innovative processes to better serve the organization's particular needs.
There is thus no Oriented level.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The repeatable level is the second maturity level. At this level basic project management techniques are established, and successes could be repeated as the requisite processes would have been made established, defined, and documented.
B: The defined level is the third maturity level. At this level an organization has developed its own standard software process through greater attention to documentation, standardization, and integration.
C: The (quantatively) managed level is the fourth maturity level. At this level an organization monitors and controls its own processes through data collection and analysis.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, New York, 2013, pp. 62, 1120-1122
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Capability_Maturity_Model
NEW QUESTION # 1812
Which of the following is a class C fire?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Class C fires are electrical fires.
Class C fires are electrical fires which that may occur in electrical equipment or wiring. Class C fire extinguishers use gas, CO2 or dry powders as these extinguishing agents are non-conductive.
Incorrect Answers:
B: A flammable liquid fire (such as gasoline, oil, lacquers) is a Class B fire. Therefore, this answer is incorrect.
C: A common combustibles fire (such as wood, paper, cloth) is a Class A fire. Therefore, this answer is incorrect.
D: Soda acid is not a type of fire; it's a type of fire extinguisher. Therefore, this answer is incorrect.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, 2013, p. 472
NEW QUESTION # 1813
A system developer has a requirement for an application to check for a secure digital signature before the application is accessed on a user's laptop. Which security mechanism addresses this requirement?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A secure digital signature is a cryptographic technique that verifies the authenticity and integrity of a message or document. A secure digital signature requires a private key that is known only to the signer and a public key that is available to anyone who wants to verify the signature. A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware device that securely stores cryptographic keys, such as the private key for digital signatures. A TPM can also perform cryptographic operations, such as generating, signing, and verifying digital signatures. A TPM can prevent unauthorized access or tampering with the keys and the application that uses them. A TPM can also provide attestation, which is the ability to prove that the application has not been modified or compromised. The other options do not address the requirement of checking for a secure digital signature before the application is accessed on a user's laptop. Hardware encryption is a technique that encrypts data using a hardware device, such as a USB drive or a hard disk.
Hardware encryption does not verify the authenticity or integrity of the data or the application. A certificate revocation list (CRL) policy is a set of rules that defines how to check the validity of digital certificates, which are electronic documents that bind a public key to an identity. A CRL policy does not verify the digital signature itself, but rather the certificate that contains the public key. A key exchange is a process that allows two parties to securely establish a shared secret key over an insecure channel, such as the internet. A key exchange does not verify the digital signature, but rather enables the encryption and decryption of the data or the application.
NEW QUESTION # 1814
During the risk assessment phase of the project the CISO discovered that a college within the University is collecting Protected Health Information (PHI) data via an application that was developed in-house. The college collecting this data is fully aware of the regulations for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and is fully compliant.
What is the best approach for the CISO?
Below are the common phases to creating a Business Continuity/Disaster Recovery (BC/DR) plan. Drag the remaining BC\DR phases to the appropriate corresponding location.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
NEW QUESTION # 1815
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