Free PDF Quiz CS0-004 - Newest Updated CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam CBT

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CompTIA CS0-004 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Weight	Objectives
Topic 1: Reporting and Communication	16%	- Security Operations and Incident Response Reporting and Communication 1. Internal threat intelligence report 2. Executive summary 3. Metrics and key performance indicators 4. Shift and incident handover 5. Post-incident reporting 6. Communication plan 7. Incident declaration and escalation 8. Operational security awareness - Vulnerability Management Reporting and Communication 1. Compliance findings 2. Metrics and key performance indicators 3. Action plans 4. Inhibitors to remediation 5. Risk scorecards 6. Stakeholder identification and communication 7. Vulnerability scan reports
Topic 2: Vulnerability Management	26%	- Vulnerability Prioritization and Mitigation 1. Mitigation strategies 2. Context awareness 3. Validation of remediation 4. Vulnerability prioritization criteria 5. Scoring methods - Vulnerability Scanning Methods 1. Discovery 2. Scan types 3. Planning considerations 4. Asset inventory 5. Security baseline scanning - Control Types, Risks, and Vulnerability Management 1. Third-party risk 2. Application security 3. Control types 4. Policies, governance, and service-level objectives 5. Risk management strategies 6. Risk concepts 7. Control functions - Vulnerability Assessment Tools 1. Network scanning and mapping 2. Cloud infrastructure assessment tools 3. Vulnerability scanners 4. Breach attack simulation tools 5. Multipurpose tools 6. Web application scanners
Topic 3: Security Operations	34%	- Indicators of Potential Malicious Activity 1. Cloud-related indicators 2. Unauthorized configuration 3. Email-related attacks 4. Identity-based indicators 5. Network-related indicators 6. Social engineering attacks 7. Application-related indicators 8. Host-related indicators - Efficiency and Process Improvement in Security Operations 1. Streamline operations 2. Automation and orchestration 3. Data enrichment 4. Technology and tool integration 5. Standardize processes - System and Network Architecture in Security Operations 1. Data protection concepts 2. Logging concepts 3. Encryption techniques 4. Critical infrastructure concepts 5. Identity and access management 6. Network architecture concepts 7. Operating system concepts 8. Infrastructure and system architecture concepts 9. Device management concepts - Artificial Intelligence in Security Operations 1. AI governance 2. AI risks 3. AI use cases - Tools for Determining Malicious Activity 1. Log analysis and SIEM 2. Decoding and parsing 3. File analysis 4. Threat intelligence platforms 5. Packet analysis 6. Endpoint security 7. File formats 8. Sandboxing 9. Pattern recognition and suspicious command analysis 10. User and entity behavior analysis 11. Programming and scripting languages 12. Domain and IP reputation 13. Email analysis - Threat Intelligence and Threat Hunting 1. Indicators of compromise 2. Threat actors 3. Confidence-level impacts 4. Cyber deception 5. Tactics, techniques, and procedures 6. Threat modeling 7. Threat mapping 8. Collection methods and sources
Topic 4: Incident Response and Management	24%	- Incident Response Process 1. Post-incident activities 2. Eradication 3. Containment 4. Preparation 5. Recovery 6. Analysis 7. Detection - Incident Response Techniques 1. Timeline, severity, impact, and prioritization 2. Evidence gathering and preservation 3. Training and exercises 4. Corrective action development 5. Playbooks and roles 6. Root cause analysis 7. Isolation and escalation 8. Alerts, notifications, and triage 9. Remediation and verification 10. Restoration 11. Incident response and communication plans 12. Log collection, correlation, and enrichment - Attack Methodology Frameworks 1. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis 2. Cyber Kill Chain 3. MITRE ATT&CK

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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q169-Q174):

NEW QUESTION # 169
A security analyst responds to an alert regarding identity and access management activity within the cloud environment. The attacker is currently trying to gain access from one isolated cloud subscription to another via a compromised user role. Which of the following aspects of the MITRE ATT&CK framework is the attacker trying to perform?

A. Privilege escalation
B. Execution
C. Persistence
D. Lateral movement
E. Credential access

Answer: D

Explanation:
The attacker is using a compromised role to move from one cloud subscription to another, which is lateral movement between environments.

NEW QUESTION # 170
Hotspot Question
An organization receives an indication that one of its hosts is part of a DDoS attack against a victim. The proxy server is supposed to handle all web page requests from all internal hosts.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each workstation and server to review outputs and a log file.
Identify the compromised host and executable, and determine an appropriate remediation for the issue.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Answer:

Explanation:

Explanation:
Workstation 2 has a direct HTTPS connection from mozilla.exe to the DDoS target 52.13.86.101, bypassing the required proxy server. Reimaging the compromised workstation removes the malicious software and restores the system to a trusted state.

NEW QUESTION # 171
An analyst receives the following output:

Which of the following is the correct number of discovered systems that are allowing unencrypted traffic?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

Answer: B

Explanation:
The scan results identify two systems exposing services that permit communications without transport encryption, making B the correct count. The analyst must examine each discovered service rather than merely count open ports, because the security property being evaluated is whether the identified protocol transmits its session or application data without adequate encryption.
Common examples include HTTP instead of HTTPS, Telnet instead of SSH, and legacy FTP rather than protected file-transfer alternatives. The presence of an unencrypted service does not automatically prove that sensitive information is currently being transmitted, but it identifies a configuration that can expose credentials, commands, session content, or application data to interception when used.
The correct vulnerability-management workflow is to map discovered ports to services, determine the security characteristics of those protocols, verify whether encryption is available and enforced, and then prioritize remediation according to asset exposure and business requirements. Where possible, administrators should disable unnecessary cleartext services or replace them with cryptographically protected equivalents.
This question therefore tests interpretation of vulnerability or port-scan output , not simple arithmetic.
The two affected systems are those whose discovered services permit cleartext communications.
Study Guide Reference: Vulnerability Management # Scan Result Interpretation # Ports and Protocols # Cleartext Services # Encryption in Transit # Remediation and Secure Configuration.

NEW QUESTION # 172
A security analyst analyzes the output of a web application access log for a company based in the United States. Given the following output:

Which of the following users should be investigated first?

A. tlindy
B. mschultz
C. jschott
D. dmann

Answer: A

Explanation:
tlindy has a successful login from a Russian IP address between successful U.S.-based logins, indicating a potentially compromised account or impossible-travel activity. The other Russian login attempts shown were unsuccessful.

NEW QUESTION # 173
A vulnerability analyst conducts a security assessment on the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) security posture within the environment.
The analyst issues the following command for the assessment: nmap -p 3389 --script rdp* 10.0.0.0/24 The analyst receives responses, which are divided into one of the two categories, from 13 out of the 254 hosts:

Which of the following conclusions can the analyst make about the output on Category 2?

A. The systems are joined to an Active Directory domain and using New Technology LAN Manager (NTLM) as an authentication method.
B. The systems are joined to an Active Directory domain and are using Kerberos as an authentication method.
C. The systems are not joined to an Active Directory domain and are using Kerberos as an authentication method.
D. The systems are not joined to an Active Directory domain and are using NTLM as an authentication method.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Category 2 represents hosts whose RDP authentication characteristics indicate NTLM without Active Directory domain membership , making option C the correct interpretation. The Nmap command targets TCP port 3389 and executes RDP-related NSE scripts. Nmap's RDP scripts include rdp-ntlm-info, which obtains information through RDP services configured for CredSSP/Network Level Authentication, as well as rdp-enum-encryption, which evaluates supported RDP security layers and encryption.
Kerberos normally relies on a domain-based authentication infrastructure and a Key Distribution Center. A non-domain-joined workstation will typically rely on local authentication mechanisms and can use NTLM challenge-response authentication where appropriate. The absence of Active Directory domain characteristics, together with NTLM-specific RDP information, therefore distinguishes Category 2 from domain-integrated Kerberos authentication.
It is important operationally not to infer that every NTLM-capable system is necessarily outside Active Directory; domain members can fall back to NTLM under certain conditions. The examination conclusion depends on the combined evidence shown in the category output rather than NTLM alone.
Study Guide Reference: Vulnerability Management # Service Enumeration # Nmap NSE # RDP/3389 # NTLM # Kerberos # Active Directory Authentication Assessment.

NEW QUESTION # 174
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