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Cisco 300-215 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Weight	Objectives
Topic 1: Forensics Processes	15%	- Apply evidence handling procedures 1. Maintaining integrity of evidence 2. Collection and preservation of volatile and non-volatile evidence - Follow forensic investigation methodology 1. Collection 2. Identification 3. Reporting 4. Analysis 5. Preservation 6. Examination
Topic 2: Fundamentals	20%	- Explain legal and regulatory considerations 1. Compliance requirements 2. Privacy concerns - Explain digital forensics concepts 1. Chain of custody 2. Forensic readiness 3. Evidence preservation - Describe incident response concepts 1. Incident response lifecycle (PICERL) 2. Roles and responsibilities in incident response 3. Incident response plan components
Topic 3: Incident Response Techniques	25%	- Use Cisco technologies for response 1. Cisco AMP for Endpoints/Network 2. Cisco Stealthwatch 3. Cisco SecureX 4. Cisco Umbrella Investigate - Respond to incidents 1. Eradicate threats 2. Contain threats 3. Triage and prioritize incidents - Detect incidents 1. Identify indicators of compromise (IoCs) 2. Analyze alerts from firewalls, IPS, and other sources
Topic 4: Incident Response Processes	20%	- Implement proactive threat hunting 1. Conduct audits 2. Identify potential threats - Conduct root cause analysis 1. Identify root cause of incidents 2. Analyze components for RCA report - Perform post-incident activities 1. Recommend mitigation actions 2. Improve incident response plan 3. Lessons learned
Topic 5: Forensics Techniques	20%	- Analyze digital evidence 1. Memory forensics 2. Timeline analysis 3. Malware analysis basics - Collect digital evidence 1. Network traffic analysis 2. Log analysis 3. Endpoint forensics - Apply forensic tools 1. Splunk 2. YARA 3. Wireshark

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Cisco Conducting Forensic Analysis & Incident Response Using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps Sample Questions (Q178-Q183):

NEW QUESTION # 178
Refer to the exhibit.

What is occurring?

A. The threat actor creates persistence by creating a repeatable task.
B. RDP is used to move laterally to systems within the victim environment.
C. Obfuscated scripts are getting executed on the victim machine.
D. Malware is modifying the registry keys.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The command in the image usesschtasks /createwith theONLOGONschedule andSystemuser context to executetest.exe. This is a well-documented persistence technique, where an attacker ensures that a malicious executable is launched automatically at each system logon. This kind of scheduled task creation aligns with persistence techniques in the MITRE ATT&CK framework (T1053).
-

NEW QUESTION # 179
Which technique is used to evade detection from security products by executing arbitrary code in the address space of a separate live operation?

A. privilege escalation
B. GPO modification
C. token manipulation
D. process injection

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 180
Refer to the exhibit.

An alert came with a potentially suspicious activity from a machine in HR department. Which two IOCs should the security analyst flag? (Choose two.)

A. cmd.exe starting powershell.exe with Base64 conversion
B. WScript.exe acting as a parent of cmd.exe
C. WScript.exe initiated by powershell.exe
D. cmd.exe executing from \Device\HarddiskVolume3\
E. powershell.exe used on HR machine

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
The exhibit shows a series of process executions that form a suspicious chain involving scripting engines and obfuscated commands:
* One critical indicator iscmd.exe executing PowerShell with obfuscated (Base64-encoded) arguments
. The use of Base64 is a known method used by attackers to mask malicious commands. This aligns with attack techniques defined under MITRE ATT&CK T1059 (Command and Scripting Interpreter) and T1086 (PowerShell abuse). Therefore, option D is valid.
* Another important IOC isWScript.exe acting as a parent of cmd.exe, which is abnormal in typical business environments. This indicates potential misuse of Windows Script Host (WSH) to launch commands, often seen in phishing or malware dropper scenarios. Thus, option E is also valid.
Options A and B by themselves are not definitive IOCs-PowerShell and cmd.exe are legitimate administrative tools and frequently used in Windows environments.
Option C is not supported by the exhibit-the reverse (powershell.exe initiated by WScript.exe) is what's seen, not the other way around.
These patterns align with theCyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, which specifies that chaining of interpreters (e.g., WScript # cmd # PowerShell) with encoded commands is a key indicator of compromise during forensic analysis.
Reference:CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter on Identifying Malicious Activity in Host-Based Artifacts and Command-Line Analysis.

NEW QUESTION # 181
What is the steganography anti-forensics technique?

A. concealing malicious files in ordinary or unsuspecting places
B. changing the file header of a malicious file to another file type
C. sending malicious files over a public network by encapsulation
D. hiding a section of a malicious file in unused areas of a file

Answer: A

Explanation:
Steganography is the anti-forensics technique of hiding malicious content within seemingly innocent files, such as image, audio, or video files. The goal is to conceal data or code in a way that avoids suspicion and detection, thereby making traditional security inspection tools ineffective unless they are explicitly designed to detect hidden data within media files.
Steganography differs from encryption because it does not simply make data unreadable; it hides the existence of the data itself. It is commonly used in cyber operations to hide command-and-control instructions or to exfiltrate sensitive information in covert ways.
Reference:CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter on Evasion and Obfuscation Techniques, Anti-Forensics, Steganography Section.

NEW QUESTION # 182
Refer to the exhibit.

According to the SNORT alert, what is the attacker performing?

A. SQL injection attack against the target webserver
B. brute-force attack against the web application user accounts
C. brute-force attack against directories and files on the target webserver
D. XSS attack against the target webserver

Answer: C

Explanation:
The alert clearly identifies ET SCAN DirBuster Web App Scan in Progress, referencing SID 2008186, which is a Snort signature that specifically detects DirBuster activity. DirBuster is a well-known tool used for brute- forcing hidden directories and files on web servers.
The Cisco CyberOps Associate guide and OWASP both identify directory brute-forcing as a reconnaissance technique to find unprotected or misconfigured endpoints on web applications, typically prior to launching deeper attacks.
Therefore, the correct interpretation of the alert is:
C). brute-force attack against directories and files on the target webserver.

NEW QUESTION # 183
......

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