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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Security Capability Selection, Placement and Configuration | 15% | - Security control architecture
|
| Advanced Threat Intelligence and Analysis | 5% | - Threat intelligence architecture
|
| Scaling Cybersecurity Defenses and DevSecOps | 15% | - Security architecture at scale
|
| Security Data Management | 20% | - Data architecture design
|
| Measuring and Improving Security Program Effectiveness | 15% | - Security metrics and performance
|
| Advanced Incident Response and Management | 10% | - Incident response architecture
|
| Governance, Risk and Compliance | 10% | - Security governance
|
| Advanced Automation and Orchestration | 10% | - SOAR architecture
|
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NEW QUESTION # 116
A financial institution requires that all security event data is retained in a highly available, tamper-evident state for compliance purposes. Which Splunk architectural feature should the Cybersecurity Defense Architect recommend to ensure data immutability and high availability?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Indexer Clustering ensures high availability by maintaining multiple copies of data across peer nodes. Enabling Data Integrity Control provides a cryptographic mechanism (using hashes) to verify that the data has not been tampered with since it was originally indexed, which is a critical requirement for compliance and forensic investigations.
NEW QUESTION # 117
A security architect is tasked with implementing new security controls in a cloud environment. To minimize operational risk, the architect decides to use a phase-based rollout strategy.
The approach involves the following steps:
- Deploy the controls in "monitoring-only" mode on a canary system to observe for any unexpected behavior.
- Expand the monitoring deployment to a small subset of production systems.
- After validating the results and ensuring minimal impact, gradually enable the controls in blocking/enforcement mode, first on the canary, then the subset, and finally on all systems.
Which of the following best describes the main advantage of this phased, monitoring-first deployment strategy?
Answer: A
Explanation:
A phased, monitoring-first rollout reduces operational risk by exposing unexpected behavior, false positives, performance issues, or business impact before enforcement is broadly enabled.
Starting with a canary and gradually expanding deployment gives the team time to tune controls and resolve issues in a controlled manner.
NEW QUESTION # 118
A SIEM has a critical role in continually monitoring the effectiveness of security controls.
What is the primary security function of a SIEM?
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) platform primarily aggregates, normalizes, searches, and correlates security telemetry collected from different technologies across an organization ' s infrastructure.
These data sources may include identity providers, operating systems, cloud platforms, firewalls, endpoint security solutions, application servers, and network monitoring technologies.
By centralizing this information, a SIEM enables security operations teams to identify patterns that might not be apparent when individual data sources are examined independently.
For example, multiple failed authentication attempts followed by privileged account activity and an unusual outbound connection may indicate potential account compromise.
Splunk Enterprise Security provides detection engineering, correlation searches, threat investigation, and risk- based analysis capabilities that support these use cases.
Its Common Information Model helps normalize data from heterogeneous platforms so that searches and detections can operate consistently across different vendors.
Option A describes Static Application Security Testing (SAST). Option B refers to Configuration Management Database (CMDB) functionality.
Option C is more closely associated with Breach and Attack Simulation (BAS), adversary emulation, and security-control validation.
Although a SIEM can consume outputs from these technologies, its primary function remains the analysis and correlation of security events to identify suspicious behavior and support incident investigation.
Official reference / study topic: Splunk Common Information Model and Splunk Enterprise Security Detection and Investigation.
NEW QUESTION # 119
During a recent incident investigation, an analyst noted intellectual property being shared externally with unauthorized parties. After reporting this through the appropriate channels, the compliance team engaged an architect to implement controls that alert on and prevent these email communications.
Which type of technical control can be implemented to ensure that intellectual property is shared only with authorized parties?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) technology helps organizations identify, monitor, and restrict unauthorized disclosure of sensitive information through communication and collaboration channels.
In this scenario, the primary requirement is to prevent intellectual property from being transmitted through email to unauthorized external recipients.
A DLP solution can inspect supported email content and attachments using sensitivity labels, classification rules, document characteristics, sensitive-information types, or other configured detection methods.
When a message violates a defined policy, the system may generate an alert, block transmission, require additional approval, or apply another supported protective action.
For example, an organization may classify proprietary source code, engineering specifications, and confidential research as restricted information.
DLP policies can then prevent externally addressed messages containing protected material from leaving the organization without appropriate authorization.
Microsoft Purview DLP provides examples of content inspection and enforcement for Exchange email, including recipient conditions and message-handling actions.
SPF identifies authorized sending infrastructure for an email domain.
DKIM provides cryptographic email authentication, while DMARC establishes domain-level authentication alignment and policy handling.
These technologies help defend against spoofing and email impersonation but do not determine whether an employee is authorized to disclose intellectual property.
DLP therefore directly addresses the confidentiality and exfiltration-prevention requirement.
Official reference / study topic: Microsoft Purview, Data Loss Prevention Policy Reference and Exchange Conditions and Actions.
NEW QUESTION # 120
An organization is redesigning its enterprise network to adopt a Zero Trust Architecture. As a security architect, which of the following design principles best supports building a scalable and defensible Zero Trust blueprint?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Zero Trust Architecture relies on verifying access continuously and enforcing least privilege based on identity, device posture, context, and policy rather than trusting network location.
Identity-based segmentation helps limit lateral movement and provides a scalable model for controlling access to applications and data across enterprise, cloud, and remote environments.
NEW QUESTION # 121
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