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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Dimensions of Care | 50% | - Acute Care - Chronic Care - Health Promotion and Illness Prevention - Assessment and Diagnosis |
| Topic 2: Physician Activities | 50% | - Communication - Professional Behaviours - Psychosocial Aspects - Management |
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NEW QUESTION # 314
A 22-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her boyfriend, who says that she is experiencing a fentanyl overdose. She is unresponsive and cyanotic. She regains consciousness after naloxone is injected intravenously and demonstrates no further respiratory depression during 8 hours of observation.
She states that she is 22 weeks' pregnant and wants to stop using opioids. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: D
Explanation:
For pregnant patients with opioid use disorder, opioid agonist therapy with methadone or buprenorphine is the standard of care. Detoxification is not recommended in pregnancy due to increased risk of fetal distress, preterm labor, and relapse. Methadone reduces illicit opioid use and stabilizes both mother and fetus.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Addiction Medicine / Obstetrics:
"Methadone maintenance therapy is the treatment of choice for pregnant patients with opioid use disorder.
Detoxification is not advised during pregnancy due to relapse risk and potential harm to the fetus." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-3: Substance Use in Pregnancy):
"Candidates must manage opioid use disorder in pregnancy with evidence-based therapies, including referral for methadone or buprenorphine." Counselling alone (D) is insufficient as first-line therapy. Home detox (C) is unsafe. Inpatient detox (A) is not recommended in pregnancy.
NEW QUESTION # 315
A 32-year-old woman, gravida 0, comes to your office for contraception counselling, specifically about insertion of a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device. She has a past history of breast cancer and is presently on tamoxifen. Which one of the following is the best advice for your patient?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (LNG-IUD) is generally contraindicated in current or recent breast cancer due to the progestin component, but may be considered in selectpatients on tamoxifen, especially if non-hormonal options are unsuitable. Consultation with the oncologist is required to evaluate risks and benefits.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Contraception in Special Populations":
"Levonorgestrel IUDs are generally avoided in patients with a history of hormone-sensitive cancers; however, decisions should be made collaboratively with oncology." MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 82-2: Contraception):
"Candidates must tailor contraceptive advice to patients with medical comorbidities, including cancer survivors." Irregular bleeding (A) is a common but not contraindicating side effect. No pre-procedure antibiotics (D) are typically needed. The IUD does not cause infertility (E). Risk of recurrence (C) is unconfirmed and must be individualized.
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NEW QUESTION # 316
A 42-year-old woman presents to your clinic requesting an increase in her stimulant dosage for the treatment of her adult attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. Her medical history includes hypertension and type 1 diabetes with associated nephropathy. She has been taking methylphenidate daily for 15 years. Which one of the following would need to be addressed before the dosage can be increased?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Stimulants like methylphenidate can increase heart rate and blood pressure. In patients with cardiovascular risk (e.g., hypertension, nephropathy), stimulants should not be increased without first addressing elevated blood pressure.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "ADHD in Adults":
"Stimulants can exacerbate hypertension and must be used cautiously. Evaluate cardiovascular risk factors and control blood pressure before dose increases." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-1: ADHD):
"Candidates must consider the cardiovascular risks of stimulant therapy and monitor for hypertension prior to adjusting doses." While poor glycemic control (B) and renal disease (A) are important, BP control is most critical for immediate stimulant safety.
NEW QUESTION # 317
A 39-year-old woman comes to the office for a periodic health examination. She reports that her father had a recent diagnosis of breast cancer (at age 62 years) and that a paternal aunt had ovarian cancer in her early 40s.
The results of mammography are normal. Which one of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient?
Answer: E
Explanation:
This patient has a family history of both male breast cancer (father) and early-onset ovarian cancer (aunt), which are red flags for BRCA1/2 mutations. Genetic counseling and BRCA testing are the appropriate next steps to stratify cancer risk and guide screening and prevention.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Oncology, "Breast Cancer Risk" Section:
"BRCA testing is recommended for individuals with a strong family history of breast or ovarian cancer, particularly if involving male relatives or early-onset cases." MCCQE1 Objectives (Population Health > 97-5: Screening and Prevention):
"Candidates must identify high-risk individuals who require genetic counseling and screening beyond population guidelines." Tamoxifen (A) and prophylactic mastectomy (E) are only considered after confirming mutation status. Annual screening starting at 50 (D) is for average-risk women. Fine-needle sampling (C) is not a screening tool.
NEW QUESTION # 318
A 35-year-old woman presents to your clinic with double vision and a gritty sensation in her eyes for the past several weeks. On examination, you notice her eyes are bulging. There is inflammation of her conjunctivae and swelling around her eyes. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The findings of exophthalmos (bulging eyes), conjunctival inflammation, and periorbital swelling are hallmark features of Graves ophthalmopathy, a manifestation of autoimmune hyperthyroidism.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, "Thyroid Disorders":
"Graves ophthalmopathy: proptosis, periorbital edema, conjunctivitis, and diplopia due to extraocular muscle involvement. Often independent of thyroid levels." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 36-1: Thyroid Disease):
"Candidates must recognize and manage Graves disease and its ocular manifestations." Myasthenia gravis may cause diplopia but not proptosis or swelling. Pseudotumor and cellulitis are painful and acute. Allergic conjunctivitis is itchy but lacks proptosis.
NEW QUESTION # 319
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