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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Professionalism, ethics, and compliance | 9.17% | - Confidentiality, DRG compliance, and ethical CDI practices - Query compliance, DRG creep, and audit risks |
| Healthcare regulations, reimbursement, and documentation requirements related to the IPPS | 12.5% | - CC/MCC, CMI, Medicare contractors, and compliance - IPPS, MS-DRGs, reimbursement, and medical necessity |
| Healthcare facility CDI program analysis | 8.33% | - Data analysis, forecasting, and performance measurement - CDI productivity, provider response, CMI, and program metrics |
| Medical record documentation | 19.17% | - Documentation requirements and diagnosis or procedure code assignment - Documentation clarification and compliant physician queries |
| Anatomy and physiology, pathophysiology, pharmacology, and medical terminology | 19.17% | - Clinical conditions and clinical indicators - Anatomy, physiology, pathophysiology, pharmacology, and terminology |
| Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting | 14.17% | - Principal and secondary diagnosis assignment - Coding guidelines, AHA Coding Clinic, HACs, and POA indicators |
| Impact of reportable diagnoses on quality of care | 8.33% | - Quality metrics, reporting programs, and financial impact - Mortality, severity of illness, and risk of mortality |
| Communication skills | 9.17% | - CDI and coding roles and interdisciplinary collaboration - Physician education and effective communication |
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NEW QUESTION # 87
A physician responds to a clinically supported CDI query by stating that the proposed diagnosis does not apply and documents a different diagnosis supported by the patient's condition. What is the BEST action by the CDI specialist?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The CDI specialist should respect the provider's independent clinical judgment, provided the response clearly addresses the query and the resulting documentation is clinically coherent.
A query is a request for clarification-not a mechanism for compelling the provider to select CDI's preferred diagnosis. Physician disagreement is therefore not inherently a failed query. The provider may appropriately document another condition, rule out a suspected condition, or explain why the indicators have another clinical interpretation.
Repeatedly querying until a desired diagnosis appears creates serious compliance risk and can undermine the integrity of the documentation process. Escalation may be appropriate in defined circumstances-for example, unresolved contradictions, unanswered high-priority queries, or persistent clinical-validation issues-but should follow organizational policy and should not occur merely because CDI dislikes the provider's answer.
The 2026 ACDIS/AHIMA guidance is the current foundational query-practice standard and emphasizes compliant clarification across healthcare settings.
Effective CDI communication requires clinical knowledge, professional dialogue, and recognition that final diagnostic determinations belong to the responsible provider.
CCDS Reference Topics: Physician communication; query responses; provider independence; escalation; professional conduct.
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NEW QUESTION # 88
A patient presents to the ED following a motor vehicle crash with a lacerated spleen. The patient's BP is 80
/60, HR is 160, and the patient receives dopamine, a 2-L saline bolus, and 3 units of PRBCs. The physician documents MVA with lacerated spleen. Based on these clinical indicators, which of the following conditions would BEST reflect the accurate acuity of this patient?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The clinical presentation most strongly supports clarification of hypovolemic shock, specifically hemorrhagic shock in the context of traumatic splenic bleeding. Profound hypotension at 80/60 mmHg, extreme tachycardia at 160 beats/min, substantial crystalloid resuscitation, transfusion of three units of packed red blood cells, and vasopressor support demonstrate severe circulatory compromise.
Acute blood loss anemia may also be present and should be documented when clinically supported, but it does not fully represent the patient's hemodynamic instability. Shock describes failure of effective tissue perfusion and therefore more accurately captures the immediate physiologic severity.
SIRS due to trauma is less specific than the evident volume-loss state and would not adequately describe the hemorrhagic circulatory collapse. The record already identifies splenic laceration; "ruptured spleen" should not be substituted without provider confirmation and appropriate operative/imaging evidence.
For CDI purposes, this is a classic situation in which documentation of only the anatomical injury understates the patient's physiologic acuity. A neutral query can present the documented hypotension, tachycardia, transfusion, fluids, and vasoactive treatment and request clarification of the associated condition.
CCDS Reference Topics: Shock; trauma; hemorrhage; acute blood loss; severity-of-illness documentation.
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NEW QUESTION # 89
A patient is admitted with sepsis due to an E. coli urinary tract infection. The provider also documents acute kidney injury due to the sepsis and "severe sepsis without septic shock." Which sequencing is most appropriate?
Answer: B
Explanation:
When severe sepsis is documented, coding requires the underlying systemic infection first, followed by the appropriate severe-sepsis code and additional code(s) for the acute organ dysfunction. Therefore, the sepsis code is sequenced first, followed by the severe-sepsis code and acute kidney injury.
The FY 2026 ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines state that severe sepsis requires at least two codes: one for the underlying systemic infection and another from subcategory R65.2-. Additional codes identify associated acute organ dysfunction. A code from R65.2- cannot serve as the principal diagnosis.
The UTI identifies the localized source but does not replace the systemic infection as principal diagnosis when sepsis is the condition chiefly responsible for admission. Likewise, the AKI is a manifestation of the severe systemic process and is not sequenced before the sepsis in this scenario.
For CDI specialists, the essential documentation element is the relationship between sepsis and the acute organ dysfunction. Organ dysfunction alone does not automatically permit severe-sepsis coding; provider documentation must establish the association when it is not inherent.
CCDS Reference Topics: Sepsis; severe sepsis; organ dysfunction; sequencing; principal diagnosis.
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NEW QUESTION # 90
A CDI manager notes that the physician query response rate is 98%, but only 55% of queries are answered before discharge. Which metric should receive the MOST immediate workflow analysis?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The overall response rate is excellent at 98%, but the fact that only 55% of queries are resolved before discharge indicates a meaningful concurrent-workflow issue.
Concurrent CDI is most effective when clarification occurs while the patient remains hospitalized and the physician has immediate access to the clinical context. Delayed responses can contribute to retrospective work, final-bill holds, coding delays, and administrative escalation.
The CDI manager should determine whether delays cluster by provider, specialty, query type, unit, day of week, discharge timing, or electronic-query process. Other factors may include insufficient notification, physician workflow, poor escalation protocols, or queries being issued too late in the stay.
CMI and MCC volume do not directly measure response timeliness and should not substitute for analysis of the actual operational problem.
Importantly, programs should not pressure physicians into rapid but clinically superficial responses. Query timing initiatives must preserve thoughtful provider judgment and compliant communication.
ACDIS identifies medical-record review, communication, query technique, and data-mining/reporting functions among core CCDS competencies.
CCDS Reference Topics: Query timeliness; concurrent CDI; physician engagement; workflow analysis; program metrics.
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NEW QUESTION # 91
Under the FY 2026 Hospital Value-Based Purchasing Program, hospital performance is organized into which of the following four domains?
Answer: B
Explanation:
For FY 2026, CMS Hospital Value-Based Purchasing performance is organized into four domains: Clinical Outcomes; Person and Community Engagement; Safety; and Efficiency and Cost Reduction. CMS reports that each domain contributes to the hospital's Total Performance Score, with the FY 2026 dataset showing weighted scores for all four domains.
The Hospital VBP Program is funded by reducing participating hospitals' base operating DRG payments by
2% and redistributing the amount through value-based incentive payments according to program performance.
CDI professionals are particularly relevant to quality reporting because complete and accurate documentation can influence coded clinical information used in mortality, complications, risk adjustment, patient-safety analysis, and other quality processes. Documentation integrity should not be manipulated to improve scores; rather, the health record must accurately reflect the patient's actual severity and clinical course.
ACDIS explicitly includes Hospital VBP measures, SOI/ROM, Patient Safety Indicators, and publicly reported quality data within CCDS program-analysis competencies.
CCDS Reference Topics: Hospital VBP; quality reporting; Safety domain; Clinical Outcomes; CDI impact on publicly reported data.
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NEW QUESTION # 92
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