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ACDIS CCDS-O Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Quality, Regulatory, and Health Initiatives: Covers population health, MSSP, ACO models, MACRA
  • MIPS, compliant query development, RADV audits, OIG compliance, problem list maintenance, and HIPAA requirements in outpatient CDI.
Topic 2
  • Risk Adjustment Models and Impact of Documentation and Coding: Covers CMS-HCC model fundamentals, RAF scoring, Medicare Advantage payments, hierarchies, disease interactions, and compliant HCC reporting requirements.
Topic 3
  • CDI Program Concepts: Department Metrics and Provider Education: Covers provider education development, CDI performance metrics including query rates, RAF progression, HCC capture, ACO
  • MSSP impact, and physician documentation's effect on quality reporting.
Topic 4
  • Healthcare regulations, reimbursement, and documentation requirements related to the Official Guidelines for
Topic 5
  • and billing: Covers Official Coding Guidelines, OPPS reimbursement (APCs), and professional billing concepts including CPT E
  • M codes and Medicare Physician Fee Schedule documentation.

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ACDIS Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient Sample Questions (Q107-Q112):

NEW QUESTION # 107
A record review conducted prior to a primary care appointment indicates a patient has been followed for history of colon cancer. The patient is 18 months s/p bowel resection and is under treatment for LLE DVT, which required monitoring of INR - on Coumadin. The problem list also includes obesity, obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), COPD, and hypertension. Which of the following is the query opportunity?

Answer: B

Explanation:
In outpatient CDI, a prime query opportunity is any diagnosis with unclear "status" that materially affects coding, risk adjustment, surveillance, and care planning. "History of colon cancer" paired with "18 months s/p bowel resection" creates ambiguity: the provider must clarify whether the malignancy is still active (current disease, recurrence, metastasis, ongoing treatment) versus no longer present (history of malignancy, in remission, disease-free status, post-treatment surveillance only). This distinction changes code selection substantially and prevents inappropriate reporting of an active cancer when the encounter is actually follow-up after curative treatment. By contrast, ostomy status is not documented as present, and OSA/COPD "status" may be clinically useful but is not inherently ambiguous from the prompt in the same way (they are listed as chronic problems without a conflicting timeline event). ACDIS outpatient CDI practice prioritizes clarifying cancer status because it impacts longitudinal documentation integrity, accurate problem list management, and compliant diagnosis reporting at each visit.


NEW QUESTION # 108
ICD-10-CM code assignment can be supported by documentation from someone other than the patient's provider in which of the following circumstances?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Outpatient ICD-10-CM guidance allows certain code elements to be based on documentation from clinicians other than the patient's diagnosing provider when those elements are considered objective, routinely assessed, and commonly documented by nursing or ancillary staff. A key example is pressure ulcer staging, which is frequently assessed and documented by wound care nurses and other qualified clinicians as part of routine skin/wound evaluation. Because the stage drives code specificity and is an observable clinical finding, coders may use non-provider documentation to assign the stage when it is clearly documented and not contradicted by the provider record. In contrast, items such as the type of obesity generally require provider diagnosis/clinical assessment rather than ancillary documentation alone. Similarly, while status conditions (like amputations or ostomies) may be observed, the coding guidelines do not broadly permit assigning these diagnoses solely from non-provider documentation without provider confirmation, unless the chart otherwise supports it. Therefore, among the choices, pressure ulcer stage is the appropriate circumstance where non-provider documentation can support ICD-10-CM assignment.


NEW QUESTION # 109
Which of the following descriptors is classified as an uncertain diagnosis?

Answer: B

Explanation:
In outpatient CDI and coding guidance, an "uncertain diagnosis" is identified by wording that indicates the provider has not confirmed the condition (e.g., possible, probable, suspected, rule out, question of, concern for). These terms reflect diagnostic consideration rather than an established diagnosis. Option A uses the phrase "concern for," which is a classic uncertainty qualifier and signals the provider is considering streptococcal pneumonia but has not definitively diagnosed it. In contrast, options B and D describe active treatment "for streptococcal pneumonia," which implies the provider is managing the condition as a working diagnosis; however, in outpatient coding, treatment alone does not automatically make a diagnosis confirmed if the documentation still reflects uncertainty-CDI would look for explicit provider confirmation. Option C ("evidence of") generally suggests supportive findings and is commonly interpreted as stronger than "concern for," though CDI would still assess whether the provider has clearly stated a confirmed diagnosis in the assessment/plan. Therefore, the clearest uncertain descriptor is "concern for."


NEW QUESTION # 110
Which of the following are appropriate clinical indicators to support a query related to alcohol dependency in remission?

Answer: A

Explanation:
To support a query for alcohol dependence in remission, outpatient CDI practice looks for indicators that reflect a documented history of dependence plus evidence the patient is actively maintaining sobriety or being followed for recovery status. Attendance at AA meetings together with a documented history of excessive alcohol use is a strong, direct indicator of recovery efforts and ongoing monitoring of a prior substance use disorder. This combination supports clarifying whether the provider intends to diagnose alcohol dependence in remission (versus current dependence, use without dependence, or no current disorder). By contrast, cirrhosis and elevated liver enzymes (option A) can be caused by many etiologies and do not, by themselves, establish dependence or remission status. Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distention (option D) are nonspecific and may suggest acute illness or liver disease but are not specific to remission. Occasional social drinking with recreational drug use (option C) suggests current substance use and would not support "in remission" without additional documentation. Therefore, option B best supports a remission-related query.


NEW QUESTION # 111
Which of the following health record elements impacts HHS-HCC risk scores?

Answer: A

Explanation:
The HHS-HCC risk adjustment model (used for ACA Marketplace plans) calculates a member's risk score using a combination of demographic factors and diagnosis codes that map to HHS-HCCs. Among the listed health record elements, gender is a core demographic variable used in the model's coefficients because expected healthcare utilization and cost patterns differ by age/sex groupings. In outpatient CDI terms, this is why accurate demographic data capture (including sex) matters alongside complete and specific condition reporting. CPT codes do not drive HHS-HCC risk scores; the model relies on diagnosis reporting (ICD-10-CM) rather than procedure codes for risk category assignment. Discharge status is an encounter/billing element relevant to certain facility payment and quality measures, but it is not a standard HHS-HCC risk score input. Ethnicity is not used as a direct risk adjustment variable in the HHS-HCC model for score calculation. Therefore, gender is the correct element that impacts HHS-HCC risk scores.


NEW QUESTION # 112
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