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Fast2test是領先于世界的學習資料提供商之一，您可以下載我們最新的PDF版本免費試用作為體驗。我們還提供可靠和有效的軟件版本CCDS-O題庫資料，幫助您模擬真實的考試環境，以方便考生掌握最新的ACDIS CCDS-O考試資訊。在我們的指導和幫助下，可以首次通過您的考試，CCDS-O考古題是IT專家經過實踐測試得到的，CCDS-O考古題也能幫您在IT行業的未來達到更高的水平。
問題 #78
An African American male enrolled in Medicaid has not been taking his blood pressure medication. Which of the following factors impacts this beneficiary's risk score?
答案：D
解題說明：
Medicaid risk adjustment models generally calculate risk using two major categories of inputs: demographics and diagnosis data. Demographic factors commonly include gender and indicators tied to Medicaid status/eligibility (for example, eligibility category, dual status, disability-related eligibility, or other program qualifiers depending on the state/model). These demographic elements adjust expected cost and are foundational to the risk score even before considering diagnoses. By contrast, race is not a standard input for calculating Medicaid risk scores in typical risk adjustment methodologies, so options that include race are not supported. Likewise, "patient noncompliance" is primarily a clinical and quality-of-care issue and may affect treatment outcomes, but it is not itself a standard risk-score driver unless it is documented as a reportable, supported diagnosis that the specific model recognizes (and most models don't directly risk-adjust for nonadherence codes). Therefore, among the options given, Medicaid status and gender are the most clearly valid factors that impact the beneficiary's risk score.
問題 #79
A patient presents with pulmonary rales, pulmonary edema found on chest x-ray, and bilateral ankle edema. Which of the following conditions will the provider MOST likely evaluate further?
答案：C
解題說明：
Pulmonary rales (crackles), radiographic pulmonary edema, and peripheral (ankle) edema together strongly suggest a systemic volume overload state, most classically due to heart failure. In ambulatory CDI chart review, these findings function as clinical indicators that drive the provider's diagnostic reasoning and typically prompt further evaluation of heart failure type and status (e.g., acute vs chronic, systolic vs diastolic, preserved vs reduced EF), along with assessment of severity and potential decompensation. Providers commonly correlate these indicators with additional data such as weight gain trends, BNP, echocardiogram findings, medication adherence (diuretics), and signs of congestion to determine whether the patient is experiencing a heart failure exacerbation requiring treatment adjustments. While pleural effusion may coexist and pneumonia can cause rales, the presence of pulmonary edema on chest x-ray plus bilateral ankle edema points more directly to a cardiac/volume etiology than an isolated infectious process. Pulmonary hypertension may contribute to dyspnea and edema but does not most directly explain pulmonary edema on imaging in the same way. Therefore, heart failure is the most likely condition to be evaluated further.
問題 #80
A patient presents to the PCP's office with LLE edema and pain for 3 days. The problem list indicates morbid obesity and a history of DVT. Vital signs are T 37.9, P 76, R 12, BP 142/88, BMI 46. Documentation states: "Patient presents with LLE edema, increased pain, and hx of DVT. Sedentary lifestyle and contraindications to anticoagulation therapy. LLE warm to touch, 3+ edema from ankle to knee. Pedal pulses 2+ on L and 3+ on R." Doppler exam indicates DVT. The PCP should be queried for which of the following diagnoses?
答案：C
解題說明：
The documented indicators strongly support two clarification needs that affect accurate outpatient reporting. First, morbid obesity is supported by an objective BMI of 46, and outpatient CDI practice emphasizes ensuring obesity class is clearly documented as a diagnosis (not only implied by BMI) and that it is clinically relevant to care planning and risk (e.g., contributes to thrombotic risk, impacts treatment options). Second, the Doppler "indicates DVT," but the record also notes a history of DVT, creating ambiguity about status-is this an acute new/recurrent DVT, a chronic/residual thrombosis, or a prior condition now re-identified? Clarifying acuity/status is essential because it changes code selection and clinical severity representation and supports medical necessity for management decisions, especially given "contraindications to anticoagulation." Hypertensive urgency is not supported (BP 142/88 without crisis features), and "hypercoagulability" is not established by the provided indicators. Therefore, querying for morbid obesity and DVT status is most appropriate.
問題 #81
A patient receives treatment for diabetes during a primary care visit. He has a glucose level of 240 and A1C of 7.9. The patient is prescribed Gabapentin 100mg TID. Which of the following should the CDI specialist query for?
答案：C
解題說明：
In outpatient CDI chart review, a key skill is recognizing when medications and treatment plans suggest a specific diabetic complication that is not explicitly documented. Gabapentin is commonly prescribed for neuropathic pain, and in a diabetic patient it is frequently used to treat diabetic peripheral neuropathy symptoms (burning, tingling, numbness, shooting pain). ACDIS outpatient CDI guidance supports querying when there are strong clinical indicators that a more specific, clinically relevant diagnosis may be present and is being treated at the encounter, because diabetes codes require complication specificity when supported (e.g., "diabetes with neuropathy" rather than unspecified diabetes). The elevated glucose and A1C confirm ongoing diabetes management but do not, by themselves, indicate CKD, macular degeneration, or ketoacidosis. Ketoacidosis would require documentation of acute metabolic decompensation and supporting clinical/lab findings, which are not provided here. Therefore, the most appropriate clarification is whether the patient has diabetic peripheral neuropathy (and whether it is painful neuropathy) being managed with gabapentin, so the provider can document the condition clearly and accurately.
問題 #82
While away on vacation, a patient sustained a compound right femoral shaft fracture requiring ORIF. Upon the patient's return home, the fracture site is determined by the orthopedist to be healing well without any complication. Which of the following diagnoses is MOST appropriate for this office follow-up?
答案：B
解題說明：
For ICD-10-CM injury coding, fracture codes require the correct 7th character to reflect the encounter type and healing status. Because the patient is being seen in the office after surgical treatment (ORIF) and the orthopedist documents the fracture is "healing well without any complication," this is a subsequent encounter for routine healing, not an initial encounter. Therefore, options A and B are incorrect because they use "initial encounter." Next, the injury is described as a compound fracture, which is synonymous with an open fracture. That makes a closed-fracture option inappropriate, eliminating option C. The remaining correct choice is the subsequent-encounter routine-healing option that also identifies the fracture as open. Outpatient CDI principles emphasize ensuring providers document key fracture elements-laterality, anatomic site, open vs closed, and healing status-because these drive compliant code assignment and correct sequencing for follow-up care. While real-world documentation ideally includes Gustilo type specificity, based on the provided choices, the best match is routine healing, subsequent encounter, open fracture.
問題 #83
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