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Cisco 300-745 Prüfungsplan:

ThemaEinzelheiten
Thema 1
  • Risk, Events, and Requirements: Covers SOC incident handling and response tools, modifying security designs to mitigate or respond to incidents, and applying frameworks like MITRE CAPEC, NIST SP 800-37, and SAFE. Includes matching regulatory and compliance requirements to business scenarios.
Thema 2
  • Secure Infrastructure: Covers selecting security approaches for endpoints, identities, email, and modern environments like hybrid work, IoT, SaaS, and multi-cloud. Includes choosing VPN
  • tunneling solutions, securing management planes, and selecting the appropriate firewall architecture based on business needs.
Thema 3
  • Applications: Focuses on selecting security solutions to protect applications and designing secure architectures for cloud-native, containerized, and serverless environments using segmentation. Also addresses security design impacts of emerging technologies like AI, ML, and quantum computing.
Thema 4
  • Artificial Intelligence, Automation, and DevSecOps: Explores AI's role in securing network infrastructure, selecting tools for automated security architectures such as SOAR, IaC, and API tooling, and integrating security into DevSecOps workflows and pipelines to minimize deployment risk.

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Cisco Designing Cisco Security Infrastructure 300-745 Prüfungsfragen mit Lösungen (Q24-Q29):

24. Frage
The network security team of a private university is conducting a comprehensive audit to evaluate the security posture across the network infrastructure. During the review, the security team found that a trusted vendor disclosed serious vulnerabilities identified in a product that plays a crucial role in the university's CI/CD pipeline. The security team must act promptly to mitigate the potential risks posed by these vulnerabilities.
Which action must the security team take first in response to the disclosure?

Antwort: A

Begründung:
According to theCisco Security Incident Responselifecycle and theNIST SP 800-61standards referenced in the SDSI objectives, the very first step in responding to a third-party vulnerability disclosure isIdentification and Validation. Before a team can patch, notify stakeholders, or monitor for exploits, they must perform an asset inventory check to confirm whether the specific vulnerable version of the product is actually running within their environment.
In a complex CI/CD pipeline, multiple tools and versions coexist. Jumping straight to patching (Option D) without validation can lead to unnecessary downtime or "breaking" integrated workflows if the vulnerability doesn't actually apply to the version in use. Similarly, using an IDS (Option A) is a detection/monitoring step that follows the confirmation of risk. Notifying customers (Option B) is a later phase in the incident response process, usually reserved for confirmed breaches or significant service impacts. By confirming the presence and version of the software first, the security team can accurately assess theblast radiusand prioritize remediation efforts based on the actual risk to the university's specific infrastructure. This systematic approach ensures that resources are allocated efficiently and that the security posture is managed based on verified data rather than assumptions.
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25. Frage
Refer to the exhibit. A retail company recently deployed a file inspection feature using secure endpoint. The file inspection must detect and prevent the execution of malicious files on machines. During testing, logs showed that certain malicious files are still being executed despite the presence of the security measure. To understand why the threats are not being blocked, it is essential to investigate the configuration of secure endpoint policies. Which configuration is allowing the files to execute?

Antwort: B

Begründung:
The exhibit shows that the malicious file was detected but not quarantined with the note "In audit only mode." This indicates that the secure endpoint policy was set to audit mode, which only logs detections instead of blocking execution. To prevent malicious files from running, the policy must be switched from audit mode to enforcement (block) mode.


26. Frage
A developer company recently implemented a testing environment based on Linux operating system. The company needs a technology solution that produces tracing and filtering capabilities in the Linux kernel. Which technology meets these requirements without modifying the kernel source code?

Antwort: B

Begründung:
eBPF (extended Berkeley Packet Filter) allows tracing, filtering, and monitoring directly inside the Linux kernel without modifying the kernel source code. It provides deep visibility into system and application behavior, making it ideal for secure and efficient observability in a testing environment.


27. Frage
A global hotel chain is using Cisco ISE and Cisco switches to manage the network. The hotel company wants to enhance network security by segmenting users and endpoints. The company must ensure that devices within the same VLAN cannot communicate with each other. The goal is to prevent cross-communication without the use of dynamic access control lists. Which action must be taken using Cisco ISE to meet the requirement?

Antwort: A

Begründung:
Cisco TrustSec provides software-defined segmentation by assigning Security Group Tags (SGTs) to users and devices. This allows policy enforcement that prevents communication between devices in the same VLAN without needing dynamic ACLs. It is the correct approach to achieve secure segmentation in this scenario.


28. Frage
How does a SOC leverage flow collectors?

Antwort: D

Begründung:
A flow collector gathers metadata about network traffic (such as NetFlow or IPFIX), which SOC analysts use to analyze communication patterns. This data is critical for threat detection and response, helping identify anomalies, lateral movement, or potential attacks.


29. Frage
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