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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Impact of reportable diagnoses on quality of care | 8.33% | - Mortality, severity of illness, and risk of mortality - Quality metrics, reporting programs, and financial impact |
| Topic 2: Healthcare regulations, reimbursement, and documentation requirements related to the IPPS | 12.5% | - CC/MCC, CMI, Medicare contractors, and compliance - IPPS, MS-DRGs, reimbursement, and medical necessity |
| Topic 3: Medical record documentation | 19.17% | - Documentation requirements and diagnosis or procedure code assignment - Documentation clarification and compliant physician queries |
| Topic 4: Healthcare facility CDI program analysis | 8.33% | - Data analysis, forecasting, and performance measurement - CDI productivity, provider response, CMI, and program metrics |
| Topic 5: Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting | 14.17% | - Principal and secondary diagnosis assignment - Coding guidelines, AHA Coding Clinic, HACs, and POA indicators |
| Topic 6: Anatomy and physiology, pathophysiology, pharmacology, and medical terminology | 19.17% | - Clinical conditions and clinical indicators - Anatomy, physiology, pathophysiology, pharmacology, and terminology |
| Topic 7: Professionalism, ethics, and compliance | 9.17% | - Confidentiality, DRG compliance, and ethical CDI practices - Query compliance, DRG creep, and audit risks |
| Topic 8: Communication skills | 9.17% | - Physician education and effective communication - CDI and coding roles and interdisciplinary collaboration |
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63. Frage
A patient's past medical history lists remote peptic ulcer disease. During the current admission, the condition receives no evaluation, treatment, diagnostic workup, extended length of stay, or increased nursing monitoring. Which statement is MOST accurate?
Antwort: C
Begründung:
The remote peptic ulcer disease generally does not meet the definition of a reportable secondary diagnosis for this hospitalization because it does not affect current patient care.
For inpatient reporting, additional diagnoses include clinically significant conditions that coexist at admission or develop subsequently and affect care through factors such as clinical evaluation, therapeutic treatment, diagnostic procedures, extended length of stay, or increased nursing care and monitoring.
Merely appearing in a past medical history or problem list does not make a condition reportable. The condition must satisfy applicable secondary-diagnosis criteria or another specific coding instruction.
This principle prevents the coded record from becoming populated with historical conditions having no relevance to the current hospitalization. It also underscores why CDI review should focus on diagnoses that meaningfully characterize the current episode of care.
Whether a diagnosis is classified as a CC or MCC is a separate MS-DRG concept. A diagnosis must first be appropriately reportable before its severity classification becomes relevant.
The CCDS outline specifically requires application of both principal- and secondary-diagnosis reporting principles.
CCDS Reference Topics: Additional diagnoses; clinically significant secondary conditions; historical diagnoses; resource utilization.
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64. Frage
The attending physician documents "acute systolic heart failure," while a consultant documents "chronic diastolic heart failure" for the same episode of care. Which provider should ultimately clarify the conflicting diagnostic documentation for coding purposes?
Antwort: D
Begründung:
The attending physician is the correct answer and this scenario is adapted from an official ACDIS CCDS sample item addressing conflicting medical-record documentation.
ICD-10-CM coding depends on provider documentation, but when clinically significant documentation conflicts within the record, the discrepancy must be clarified rather than resolved independently by the coder or CDI specialist. The FY 2026 Official Guidelines specifically state that when medical-record documentation conflicts, the patient's provider should be queried for clarification.
In the inpatient environment, the attending provider is generally responsible for synthesizing the patient's diagnoses and final clinical picture. A consultant's documentation may supply essential clinical information and may support code assignment when there is no conflict, but conflicting descriptions of heart-failure type or acuity should not simply be selected based on which diagnosis produces the higher-severity code.
The query should identify the conflicting statements objectively and request clarification of the clinically appropriate diagnosis. It should not suggest which diagnosis should be selected or mention reimbursement consequences.
This concept is central to CDI because unresolved contradictions can affect MS-DRG assignment, risk adjustment, severity measurement, quality reporting, and the clinical integrity of the record.
CCDS Reference Topics: Conflicting documentation; provider clarification; heart-failure specificity; medical-record integrity.
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65. Frage
A neurologist documents acute cerebral infarction. A qualified stroke nurse records the NIH Stroke Scale score in the medical record. Which statement is MOST accurate?
Antwort: B
Begründung:
ICD-10-CM permits the NIH Stroke Scale score to be reported from documentation by an appropriate clinician other than the provider responsible for establishing the diagnosis. The underlying stroke diagnosis itself must be appropriately documented by the provider.
This is similar to other specified exceptions such as BMI, pressure-ulcer stage, coma scale values, and certain additional clinical elements for which qualified non-provider documentation may support code assignment.
The exception does not mean that a stroke nurse can independently establish cerebral infarction for coding.
Rather, once the provider has documented the stroke, the nurse's formal NIHSS assessment can supply the standardized severity measurement.
This approach recognizes that specially trained clinical professionals routinely collect and document these structured measurements as part of patient care.
If multiple NIHSS values are documented, the applicable coding instructions and timing requirements should be followed rather than simply selecting the highest score because it produces a different code.
For CDI professionals, awareness of these non-provider documentation exceptions prevents unnecessary physician queries while ensuring that important severity information is not lost.
CCDS Reference Topics: NIH Stroke Scale; cerebral infarction; non-provider documentation; coding exceptions; stroke severity.
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66. Frage
Which of the following diagnoses is classified as a major complication/comorbidity (MCC) under the FY
2026 MS-DRG system?
Antwort: A
Begründung:
Severe protein-calorie malnutrition is the correct answer. This question is adapted from an official CCDS sample question published by ACDIS.
Under the FY 2026 MS-DRG Definitions Manual, E43, unspecified severe protein-calorie malnutrition, is classified as an MCC. In contrast, moderate and mild protein-calorie malnutrition codes are classified as CCs rather than MCCs.
An MCC can materially affect MS-DRG assignment when the applicable DRG family differentiates cases by MCC status and when no exclusion or other grouper rule prevents the effect. However, the financial effect is never sufficient justification for a query. Documentation must be clinically supported and reflect the patient's actual condition.
A dietitian may document detailed nutrition findings and malnutrition criteria, but the reportable diagnosis ordinarily requires documentation by the provider responsible for establishing diagnoses. Therefore, when strong nutritional indicators exist but the provider has not documented malnutrition, a compliant query may be appropriate.
For CCDS preparation, candidates should understand both the clinical characteristics of malnutrition and its coding/reimbursement classification.
CCDS Reference Topics: MCCs; malnutrition; MS-DRG methodology; documentation requirements; IPPS.
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67. Frage
A 34-year-old female was admitted from a group home with uncontrolled diabetes. A CDI specialist must query to specify the patient's mental incapacity since it makes management of the diabetes more difficult.
Which of the following terminology recognized by ICD-10-CM could result in the assignment of a comorbid condition?
Antwort: D
Begründung:
Severe intellectual disability is recognized ICD-10-CM terminology and maps to F72, Severe intellectual disabilities. The other phrases are not equivalent standardized ICD-10-CM diagnostic terminology.
This distinction is highly relevant to CDI. Terms used conversationally in the clinical record do not necessarily provide sufficient specificity or map cleanly to reportable ICD-10-CM diagnoses. When a patient's cognitive or developmental condition affects treatment, monitoring, self-management, nursing requirements, or the complexity of care, the CDI specialist should seek clinically appropriate provider documentation using recognized diagnostic terminology.
For FY 2026 MS-DRG logic, CMS identifies F72 as a CC, meaning it can qualify as a complication
/comorbidity when it meets secondary-diagnosis reporting requirements. That does not mean the CDI specialist should query merely for reimbursement impact. The query must be clinically justified by the record and should allow the provider to determine the correct diagnosis.
"Severe mental challenge," "acute mental incapacity," and "acute intellectual disability" do not represent the same codable disease classification.
CCDS Reference Topics: Medical terminology; mental/behavioral and neurodevelopmental disorders; CC recognition; clinically supported query opportunities.
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68. Frage
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