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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionObjectives
Topic 1: Physician Activities- Professionalism
  • 1. Physician health for sustainable practice
  • 2. Ethics and legal duties
  • 3. Lifelong learning
  • 4. Leadership and scholarly habits
  • 5. Self-awareness and reflection
- Communication
  • 1. Informed consent
  • 2. Team communication
  • 3. Physician-patient communication
  • 4. Breaking bad news
- Management
  • 1. Follow-up planning
  • 2. Therapeutic interventions
  • 3. Pharmacological and non-pharmacological treatment
- Assessment
  • 1. History taking
  • 2. Investigations and diagnostic reasoning
  • 3. Physical examination
Topic 2: Dimensions of Care- Chronic Care
  • 1. Chronic disease management
  • 2. Long-term care
  • 3. Rehabilitation
- Health Promotion and Illness Prevention
  • 1. Disease prevention measures
  • 2. Risk factor reduction
  • 3. Patient education
  • 4. Health maintenance
  • 5. Screening and periodic health exams
- Acute Care
  • 1. Acute presentations and stabilization
  • 2. Management of acute medical conditions
  • 3. Emergency and critical care
- Psychosocial Aspects
  • 1. Patient communication
  • 2. Mental health and behavioral sciences
  • 3. Psychosocial determinants of health

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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam MCCQE Prüfungsfragen mit Lösungen (Q235-Q240):

235. Frage
A 76-year-old man is brought by his family to your clinic with new-onset urinary incontinence. They state that the patient is experiencing a slowly progressing cognitive decline marked by memory disturbance, apathy, and attentional problems. Examination reveals that the patient has a stooped, forward-leaning posture and a wide-based gait. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Antwort: A

Begründung:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient presents with the classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH): gait disturbance (often wide-based and magnetic), cognitive decline, and urinary incontinence. The combination, especially with the gait being most prominent, is highly suggestive.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Geriatrics / Neurology:
"NPH presents with gait disturbance, dementia, and urinary incontinence. Gait is typically broad-based and magnetic. Imaging shows ventriculomegaly without elevated pressure." MCCQE1 Objectives (Geriatrics > 41-1: Cognitive Disorders):
"Candidates must identify NPH and distinguish it from other dementias based on clinical triad and gait features." Alzheimer's (B) primarily presents with memory loss. Parkinson's (A) has bradykinesia and rigidity. Lewy body dementia (C) includes visual hallucinations and fluctuating cognition. FTD (E) has personality and behavioral changes.


236. Frage
A 38-year-old marathon runner presents to your office with a 6-month history of increasing right hip pain.
The pain is worse with acclivity and has prevented him from running for the last 4 months. He denies fever or chills. His wife adds that she is concerned because he is increasingly disengaged with the family and not interested in other activities he usually enjoys, including sex. Which one of the following is the best next step in management?

Antwort: C

Begründung:
In a patient presenting with physical symptoms (e.g., hip pain) and prominent psychosocial red flags - loss of interest, decreased libido, and withdrawal - the next step is to screen for depression. Somatization is common in mood disorders.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, Depression:
"Patients with depression may present with somatic complaints. A thorough psychosocial assessment is essential in such cases, particularly when symptoms interfere with functioning." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > Mood Disorders:
"Candidates must consider depression in patients with non-specific physical symptoms and reduced interest or motivation, particularly with social withdrawal." Imaging or physiotherapy may be needed later, but the most urgent and informative step is psychiatric screening.


237. Frage
A 78-year-old man presents to the office with urinary hesitancy, straining to void his bladder, and a sensation of incomplete bladder emptying. On history, he has a BMI of 36 and type 2 diabetes. Which one of the following medications would most likely help the patient's symptoms?

Antwort: E

Begründung:
This elderly man has classic lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) suggestive of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) : hesitancy, straining, and incomplete emptying (obstructive symptoms). MCCQE objectives emphasize recognizing obstructive voiding symptoms in older men as most commonly due to prostatic enlargement causing bladder outlet obstruction.
First-line pharmacologic therapy for symptomatic BPH is an alpha-1 adrenergic receptor blocker (e.g., tamsulosin), which relaxes smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck, thereby improving urinary flow and reducing obstruction. Tamsulosin works relatively quickly and is appropriate for symptomatic relief.
Nitrofurantoin treats urinary tract infections, which are not suggested here. Fesoterodine is an antimuscarinic used for overactive bladder and could worsen urinary retention in obstructive BPH. Empagliflozin (an SGLT2 inhibitor) increases urinary glucose excretion and may worsen urinary frequency. Hydrochlorothiazide increases urine output and would not relieve obstructive symptoms.
Therefore, tamsulosin is the most appropriate medication to improve this patient's symptoms.


238. Frage
A 79-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset severe chest and back pain that started 1 hour ago. She has a history of hypertension and looks unwell. Her vital signs are as follows:
blood pressure 168/108 mm Hg, heart rate 110/min, respiratory rate 22/min, temperature 36.7°C. Findings of a physical examination of the chest and abdomen are normal. An urgent computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest and abdomen shows an aortic dissection extending from the descending thoracic aorta to the upper abdominal aorta. The branches of the abdominal aorta are patent. Following initial resuscitation, which one of the following is the best next step?

Antwort: B

Begründung:
This patient has a Stanford type B aortic dissection , involving the descending thoracic aorta distal to the left subclavian artery, with no evidence of branch vessel compromise or rupture. MCCQE objectives emphasize that uncomplicated type B dissections are managed medically , whereas type A dissections (ascending aorta) require urgent surgical repair.
The immediate priority is to reduce shear stress on the aortic wall by controlling heart rate and blood pressure
. Intravenous beta-blockers such as labetalol or esmolol are first-line therapy. The goal is to reduce heart rate to approximately 60 bpm and lower systolic blood pressure to 100-120 mm Hg. This decreases the force of left ventricular contraction (dP/dt), limiting propagation of the dissection.
Endovascular or open repair is reserved for complicated cases (e.g., malperfusion, rupture, refractory pain, uncontrolled hypertension). Anticoagulation with heparin is contraindicated due to bleeding risk. Observation alone without blood pressure control is inappropriate.
Therefore, intravenous labetalol is the best next step.


239. Frage
A 14-year-old girl, accompanied by her mother, presents to your office with a 3-month history of feeling
"dizzy." After you take an initial history, which one of the following is the most appropriate next step?

Antwort: C

Begründung:
In adolescents presenting with vague or potentially sensitive symptoms, it is critical to speak with them alone to obtain a complete and honest history, including mental health, sexual activity, substance use, and abuse screening.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, Adolescent Medicine:
"Private interviews are essential to obtain accurate histories in adolescents, especially when symptoms may have underlying psychosocial or reproductive causes." MCCQE1 Objectives - Pediatrics > Adolescent Health:
"Candidates must demonstrate adolescent-appropriate interviewing techniques, including private questioning to identify sensitive or risk-related concerns." Physical examination and pregnancy testing (A, B, D) may follow based on the private history. Vital signs (E) are standard but do not replace psychosocial assessment.


240. Frage
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