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CISI ICWIM Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Objectives
Topic 1: Wealth Management Principles	- Portfolio construction basics - Risk and return concepts - Client investment needs and objectives
Topic 2: Regulation and Ethics	- Ethical standards in investment advice - Conduct of business and compliance principles - Regulatory environment in financial services
Topic 3: Investment and Financial Markets	- Asset classes and investment products - Structure of financial markets - Market participants and their roles
Topic 4: Investment Products and Suitability	- Equities, bonds, and collective investments - Taxation and charges overview - Suitability and client profiling

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CISI International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management Sample Questions (Q170-Q175):

NEW QUESTION # 170
An active portfolio manager is deliberately holding securities in a portfolio in differing proportions from that in which they are weighted within the benchmark. Why are they doing this?

A. To increase the liquidity of the fund
B. In an attempt to outperform the benchmark
C. Because some securities are cheaper to deal in than others
D. Because they are anticipating a re-weighting of the benchmark

Answer: B

Explanation:
Active management involves taking positions that differ from the benchmark to try to generate excess return, often referred to as alpha. If a portfolio held securities in exactly the same weights as the benchmark, before fees it would deliver benchmark-like performance and would be classified as passive or index tracking. By overweighting securities expected to outperform and underweighting or excluding those expected to underperform, the manager is expressing investment views and accepting active risk, commonly measured by tracking error. This deliberate deviation is the defining feature of active management and is undertaken to outperform after costs. Liquidity considerations and dealing costs can influence how active bets are implemented, but they are not the primary reason for deviating from benchmark weights. Anticipating a benchmark re-weighting is possible, but that is just one specific type of active view and is not the broad objective being tested. The examinable principle is that active managers differ from the benchmark in order to outperform it.

NEW QUESTION # 171
An economy with two consecutive quarters of negative growth is considered to be in what phase of an economic cycle?

A. Inflationary
B. Recession
C. Depression
D. Slump

Answer: B

Explanation:
* Definition of Recession:
* A recession is defined as two consecutive quarters of negative GDP growth, indicating a sustained economic downturn.
* It reflects reduced consumer spending, higher unemployment, and lower production.
* Elimination of Other Options:
* B (Slump): A slump is a more general term and not a specific phase.
* C (Depression): Refers to prolonged and severe economic downturns.
* D (Inflationary): Opposite of the scenario described.
References:
* ICWIM Module 1: Explanation of economic cycles and recession indicators.

NEW QUESTION # 172
An investor deposits £1,000 into an account that pays 3% per annum. If interest is compounded annually, how much will be in the account after 5 years?

A. £1,159.27
B. £1,276.28
C. £1,150.00
D. £1,157.63

Answer: A

Explanation:
# Reference: Compound Interest Formula, CISI Wealth & Investment Management.

NEW QUESTION # 173
A stock has a beta value of 0.85. What does this indicate?

A. It has outperformed its benchmark by
B. It is more volatile than the market as a whole
C. It is less volatile than the market as a whole
D. It has underperformed its benchmark by 15%

Answer: C

Explanation:
Beta measures the sensitivity of a stock's returns to movements in the market as a whole, based on historical co-movement with a chosen market index. A beta of 1 indicates the stock has tended to move in line with the market. A beta greater than 1 indicates higher sensitivity and therefore higher systematic risk, meaning the stock has tended to rise more than the market in up markets and fall more in down markets. A beta below 1 indicates lower sensitivity to market movements. With a beta of 0.85, the stock has historically moved about
85% as much as the market, so it is less volatile than the market in systematic risk terms. This does not mean it will outperform or underperform the benchmark, and it does not describe relative performance in percentage terms. Beta is not a performance measure, it is a risk measure. CISI exam traps often include statements that confuse beta with return or with tracking error. The correct interpretation is lower market-related volatility than the market overall.

NEW QUESTION # 174
What is the role of a central counterparty (CCP)?

A. It interposes itself between the counterparties to a trade, becoming the buyer to every seller and the seller to every buyer
B. To act as a market maker between counterparties
C. To provide funding to counterparties as and when required
D. The CCP guarantees that the counterparties will not default

Answer: A

Explanation:
# Reference: CFA Institute (Derivatives & Market Infrastructure), CISI Wealth & Investment Management.

NEW QUESTION # 175
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