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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Dimensions of Care | - Psychosocial Aspects
|
| Topic 2: Physician Activities | - Communication
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NEW QUESTION # 174
A 10-year-old boy and his mother present to your office with a concern about handwashing. The mother explains that her son has been at a new school for the past month and that teachers have noticed that he is washing his hands all day. He has also hidden hand sanitizer in his desk. The hand-cleaning is a response to a constant anxiety that his hands are dirty, and that he might pass an infection to someone. Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
Answer: D
Explanation:
This child demonstrates classic features of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD): intrusive contamination fears (obsession) and repetitive handwashing behaviors (compulsion) performed to reduce anxiety. The symptoms are excessive, impairing school function, and persist beyond normal developmental concerns.
According to MCCQE objectives, first-line treatment for mild to moderate pediatric OCD is cognitive- behavioral therapy (CBT) with exposure and response prevention (ERP). ERP involves gradual exposure to feared contaminants while preventing the compulsive handwashing response, thereby reducing anxiety through habituation and cognitive restructuring. Pharmacologic treatment with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (e.g., fluoxetine) is indicated for moderate to severe cases or when CBT alone is insufficient, but it is not the preferred initial intervention when psychotherapy is accessible. Risperidone is not first-line and may be considered only as augmentation in refractory cases. Changing schools or providing a teaching assistant does not address the underlying anxiety disorder. Early evidence-based intervention improves prognosis and functional outcomes in pediatric OCD.
NEW QUESTION # 175
A 69-year-old woman with long-standing hypertension presents to the emergency department with a 2-hour history of persistent chest and back pain. A posteroanterior chest radiograph shows suspicious widening of the mediastinal shadow. Which one of the following is most likely to yield a clinical diagnosis?
Answer: E
Explanation:
The presentation is highly suspicious for acute aortic dissection - sudden chest/back pain and mediastinal widening on chest x-ray. The most definitive and widely available test is contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) of the chest.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Cardiology, Aortic Dissection:
"CT angiography of the chest is the gold standard for stable patients with suspected aortic dissection. Look for mediastinal widening on chest x-ray as a clue." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Cardiovascular Disease:
"Candidates should recognize acute aortic dissection and select appropriate imaging, such as CT chest, for diagnosis in stable patients." Transthoracic echo (A) may miss dissections. ECG (C) helps rule out MI but not dissection. V/Q scan (D) and pulmonary angiography (E) are for suspected pulmonary embolism.
NEW QUESTION # 176
A 42-year-old man presents to your office with acute left knee pain and difficulty walking. He denies any trauma. He reports 2 painful episodes involving his right great toe in the last year. He smokes half a pack of cigarettes a day and drinks at least 3 beers daily. He has a temperature of 38.2°C and has a red, swollen and warm left knee. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The patient presents with an acutely inflamed joint and fever, raising concern for septic arthritis. A history of gout does not exclude infection. The first and most urgent step in any monoarthritis with systemic signs (fever) is joint aspiration to assess for crystals, white cells, and organisms.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Rheumatology, "Monoarthritis":
"Always rule out septic arthritis in a hot, swollen joint, especially when fever is present. Joint aspiration is essential to differentiate infection from crystal arthropathy." MCCQE1 Objectives (Medicine > Rheumatology > 49-1):
"Candidates must identify red flags for septic arthritis and understand that arthrocentesis is the first step in diagnosis and management." Initiating NSAIDs or acetaminophen without diagnosis (C, D) can delay appropriate care. Radiographs (B) do not help differentiate gout from infection acutely. Blood cultures (E) may help, but aspiration is more diagnostic.
NEW QUESTION # 177
A 3-year-old boy is brought to your office because his daycare teachers are concerned about his language development. His parents speak both English and French at home, and he can say around 15 words combined in both languages. His history reveals that he has minimal interest in playing with other children. Which one of the following is most appropriate?
Answer: A
Explanation:
A limited vocabulary (fewer than 50 words by age 2-3 years) and reduced social interaction (limited interest in peers) raise concern for autism spectrum disorder (ASD). Screening for ASD is the most appropriate next step.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, Development and Behaviour:
"Red flags for autism include delayed language, limited social reciprocity, and poor peer interaction.
Screening should be initiated early when clinical signs are present."
MCCQE1 Objectives - Pediatrics > Developmental Disorders:
"Candidates must identify key signs of ASD and initiate appropriate screening and early intervention." Multilingual households do not typically cause such delays (E is incorrect). ADHD (B) presents with attention
/hyperactivity issues, not language/social delay. Reassurance (A) is inappropriate. Neurology referral (C) may follow but is not first-line.
NEW QUESTION # 178
A 29-year-old concert pianist with severe chronic kidney disease presents with a 6-month history of loss of appetite and pruritus. Although the issue of initiating dialysis has been discussed with him and his questions answered, he has declined dialysis thus far. You understand his concerns that it will interfere with his concert tour and recording schedule. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a competent patient declines dialysis, the next step is to support shared decision-making and explore options that align with their lifestyle. Peritoneal dialysis may allow more flexibility and autonomy compared to hemodialysis, making it more acceptable to patients with demanding schedules.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Nephrology, Chronic Kidney Disease Section:
"Peritoneal dialysis offers the advantage of home-based treatment and flexible scheduling. Patient education and peer support can improve acceptance and adherence to dialysis initiation." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Nephrology:
"The candidate should explore treatment alternatives collaboratively, emphasizing patient autonomy, while addressing misconceptions and lifestyle concerns related to dialysis." Simply warning the patient or withdrawing engagement (Options B and C) may undermine rapport. Access to medical records (D) is a right, but does not actively address treatment planning. Exploring new employment (E) is inappropriate at this stage.
NEW QUESTION # 179
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