CS0-003 Study Group - CS0-003 Certification Sample Questions

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CompTIA CS0-003 Exam Overview:

Certification Vendor:CompTIA
Exam Name:CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam CS0-003
Exam Number:CS0-003
Exam Price:USD 392 (may vary by region/tax)
Exam Duration:165 minutes
Passing Score:750 (on a scale of 100-900)
Certificate Validity Period:3 years
Exam Format:Performance-based questions, Multiple-choice
Related Certifications:CompTIA Security+
CompTIA PenTest+
CompTIA Network+
Available Languages:Portuguese, Japanese, Thai, English
Real Exam Qty:Up to 85
Recommended Training:Cybrary CySA+ Training
CompTIA CertMaster Learn CySA+
Exam Registration:CompTIA Certification Portal
Pearson VUE Exam Registration
Sample Questions:CompTIA CS0-003 Sample Questions
Exam Way:Online proctored or in-person at Pearson VUE testing centers
Pre Condition:Recommended: CompTIA Security+ or equivalent knowledge in networking and security fundamentals
Official Syllabus URL:https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst

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CS0-003 Certification Sample Questions, Real CS0-003 Exam

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The CS0-003 Certification Exam is an ideal choice for IT professionals who want to advance their careers in the cybersecurity industry. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is recognized by leading organizations such as the U.S. Department of Defense, and it is a requirement for many cybersecurity positions in both the public and private sectors. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification can also help professionals to earn higher salaries and gain recognition for their expertise in the field.

CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q250-Q255):

NEW QUESTION # 250
A company that has a geographically diverse workforce and dynamic IPs wants to implement a vulnerability scanning method with reduced network traffic. Which of the following would best meet this requirement?

Answer: B

Explanation:
Agent-based vulnerability scanning is a method that involves installing software agents on the target systems or networks that can perform local scans and report the results to a central server or console. Agent-based vulnerability scanning can reduce network traffic, as the scans are performed locally and only the results are transmitted over the network. Agent-based vulnerability scanning can also provide more accurate and up-to-date results, as the agents can scan continuously or on-demand, regardless of the system or network status or location.


NEW QUESTION # 251
A systems administrator is reviewing the output of a vulnerability scan.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review the information in each tab.
Based on the organization ' s environment architecture and remediation standards, select the server to be patched within 14 days and select the appropriate technique and mitigation.



Answer:

Explanation:
see the explanation for step by step solution.
Explanation:
Step 1: Reviewing the Vulnerability Remediation Timeframes
The remediation standards require servers to be patched based on their CVSS score:
CVSS > 9.0: Patch within 7 days
CVSS 7.9 - 9.0: Patch within 14 days
CVSS 5.0 - 7.9: Patch within 30 days
CVSS 0 - 5.0: Patch within 60 days
Step 2: Analyzing the Output Tab
From the Output tab:
Server 192.168.76.5 has a CVSS score of 9.2 for an unsupported Microsoft IIS version, indicating a critical vulnerability requiring a patch within 7 days.
Server 192.168.76.6 has a CVSS score of 7.4 for a missing secure attribute on HTTPS cookies, which falls in the 5.0 - 7.9 range, requiring a patch within 30 days.
Since the question asks for the server to be patched within 14 days, we need to focus on servers with CVSS
7.9 - 9.0:
None of the servers have a CVSS score that falls precisely in the 7.9 - 9.0 range.
However, 192.168.76.5, with a CVSS score of 9.2, has a vulnerability that necessitates a quick response and fits as it must be patched within the shortest timeframe (7 days, which includes 14 days).
The server that fits within a 14-day urgency, based on standard practices, would be 192.168.76.5.
Step 3: Reviewing the Environment Tab
The Environment Tab provides additional context for 192.168.76.5:
It's in the dev environment, which is internal and not publicly accessible.
MFA is required, indicating security measures are already present.
Step 4: Selecting the Appropriate Technique and Mitigation
For 192.168.76.5, with the Microsoft IIS unsupported version:
Patch; upgrade IIS to the current release is the most suitable option, as upgrading IIS will resolve the unsupported software vulnerability by bringing it up-to-date with supported versions.
This technique addresses the root cause, which is the unpatched, outdated software.
Summary
Server to be patched within 14 calendar days: 192.168.76.5
Appropriate technique and mitigation: Patch; upgrade IIS to the current release This approach ensures that the most critical vulnerabilities are addressed promptly, maintaining security compliance.


NEW QUESTION # 252
An analyst receives an alert for suspicious IIS log activity and reviews the following entries:
2024-05-23 15:57:05 10.203.10.16 HEAT / - 80 - 10.203.10.17 DirBuster-1.0-RC1+(http://www.owasp.org/index.php/Category:OWASP_DirBuster_Project)
...
Which of the following will the analyst infer from the logs?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step
The logs indicate that the OWASP DirBuster tool is being used. This tool is designed for directory brute-forcing to find hidden files or directories on a web server, which aligns with reconnaissance activities. The series of GET and HEAD requests further confirm directory and file enumeration attempts.
Reference:
CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide (Chapter 4: Reconnaissance Techniques)
CompTIA CySA+ Objectives (Domain 1.3 Tools and Techniques)


NEW QUESTION # 253
A company patches its servers using automation software. Remote SSH or RDP connections are allowed to the servers only from the service account used by the automation software. All servers are in an internal subnet without direct access to or from the internet. An analyst reviews the following vulnerability summary:

Which of the following vulnerability IDs should the analyst address first?

Answer: D

Explanation:
The vulnerability with the highest CVSS score and an active exploit is Microsoft CVE-2021-34527 (PrintNightmare). Although only present on two instances, its high severity (8.4) and exploitable nature make it a priority. PrintNightmare is a well-known remote code execution vulnerability, which can be a critical risk.
According to CompTIA CySA+ and vulnerability management practices, prioritizing based on severity and exploitability is essential, even over the number of instances. Other vulnerabilities listed are less severe or lack active exploitation.


NEW QUESTION # 254
Which of the following is a KPI that is used to monitor or report on the effectiveness of an incident response reporting and communication program?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step
Remediated incidents is a key performance indicator (KPI) that measures how effectively incidents are resolved and communicated during the incident response lifecycle. It reflects the program's success in mitigating risks and restoring normal operations. Other options (e.g., mean time to detect) are important metrics but do not directly measure reporting or communication effectiveness.
Reference:
CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide (Chapter 4: Reporting and Metrics, Page 425)
CompTIA CySA+ Objectives (Domain 4.0 - Reporting and Communication)


NEW QUESTION # 255
......

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